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Question for Arminians and Calvinists on foreknowledge

I don't believe Jesus was ever tempted to be a homosexual, transgender, and a myriad of other particular and specific sins. I don't think this is what "tempted in all points" means.

I believe the being tempted in "all points like we are" had to do with being tempted by "the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life" method (1 John 2:16).

This seems to match the Matthew 4 temptation in the wilderness scenario which He passed without fail.
I can agree. I do believe some treat temptation as requiring inclination. Christ Incarnation never had a "slant" or "propensity" toward sin. That require a deviant nature that is contrary to God.
 
There is no separation of wills. Perfect Union. They don't discuss the best action to take. Perfect Union. I can't practice it myself but I can try to imagine it. I imagine perfection. Many people try to treat the relationship of the Trinity as if they would with their own children. You can started that way but you need embrace perfection in Union. We don't have the ability to practice this now but God has never lost it.
Of course there is perfect union, in what way does the Holy Spirit doing the will of the Father and the Son imply lack of unity?
Do you think either the Son or the Holy Spirit do not will the different functions among them?
 
Technically, Adam's immortal body never existed as in God's decree Adam's original body was going to end.
Aside:
Premise 1: Before Adam's sin nothing died
Premise 2: Currently, our red blood cells last a month and then die (as best I recall)
Conclusion: Adam never created new blood cells as they were not needed ????? (Who knows? ... lol)
I would have to disagree that Adam's immortal body never existed, even though it was decreed that he would fall. He was made able to fall and given the temptation. This goes into another subject already addressed elsewhere, but as an aside that does not mean that God was the one who tempted. It suggests to me a challenge made by the tempter similar to what we see in Job.

Premise 1: agree
Premse 2: Interesting. (Who knows?): agree.
God is Spirit and as such is immaterial. A body has limitations and God does not. Christ's body was mutable and God is not. Therefore, IMO, Christ's body was a creation with a beginning and the dwelling of God the Son justified Christ being God.
Hmmm, probably some debate partly due to definitions lacking.
Yeah, well I always back away in revulsion at any statement that classifies Jesus as created. ;) Though I think I understand what you mean. It is the word created that when in reference to Jesus can be highly misleading. I prefer to think of it as the Son taking on flesh as Jesus the man. He just is and just did.
Yes. Only the human nature of Christ could die.
His body of flesh was His human nature.
 
Of course there is perfect union, in what way does the Holy Spirit doing the will of the Father and the Son imply lack of unity?
Do you think either the Son or the Holy Spirit do not will the different functions among them?
You are the one that created a potential separation of wills. Not me. You made the Holy Spirit subservient to the Father.... which implies division.

Remember when Jesus called his disciples friends instead of servants? There is a big difference between a servant and friend. You seem to be treating the Holy Spirit as subservient to the Father.
 
No. Temptation is not inclination.
It's a two-way street, requiring both to be subjects.
My brother may tempt me with the benefits of being an airline pilot,
but it is no temptation to me.

I'm not tempted until I am disposed to it.

What do you think the prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane was about?

Jesus' submitting his will of the cup passing to the Father's will of his drinking the cup.
He very much desired that the cup pass from him, to the point of sweating blood.
His preference was contrary to the Father's will, and to yield to it would be the sin of disobedience.
That is temptation. . .to which he did not yield.
 
Would Adam being subject to sin make it different from our resurrection body which is not subject to sin?
Probably.
Our resurrected body will not be subject to sin first because it will not longer have the nature to sin in it, and second, there will be no sin around us or tempting us. But in your view were we created----before the fall---with the same body as Christ's resurrected body?

I am not sure if I am addressing what you said/meant or commenting sideways of it. :)
 
You are the one that created a potential separation of wills. Not me. You made the Holy Spirit subservient to the Father.... which implies division.
Sez who?
Remember when Jesus called his disciples friends instead of servants? There is a big difference between a servant and friend. You seem to be treating the Holy Spirit as subservient to the Father.
And "seem" is a perception.
Feel free to Biblically demonstrate it as fact, in light of the fact that all wills are in agreement among them.
 
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Consider.... Blood is just a carrier of life. It is not life itself. The "breath" of God gifted to Adam continues on in the life of all Adam's descendents.

I believe a general understanding of "Kosher" here doesn't completely represent the facts. It is close though. Not criticizing just adding to the comments.
Well it was just an expression that related to the forbidding of the drinking of blood or eating an animal with the blood in it is the way that I took it.

But blood as the carrier of life and not the life itself is a very good point to make. At least after the fall though, no blood, no life, no breath. No breath, no spirit in the body. The central point I guess would be it all comes from God and depends on God, and He is the perfect Designer of everything.
 
Our resurrected body will not be subject to sin first because it will not longer have the nature to sin in it, and second, there will be no sin around us or tempting us. But in your view were we created----before the fall---with the same body as Christ's resurrected body?

I am not sure if I am addressing what you said/meant or commenting sideways of it. :)
I'm wondering what difference there could be as the result of peccability and impeccability.
 
It's a two-way street, requiring both to be subjects.
My brother may tempt me with the benefits of being an airline pilot,
but it is no temptation to me.

I'm not tempted until I am disposed to it.

What do you think the prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane was about?

Jesus' submitting his will of the cup passing to the Father's will of his drinking the cup.
He very much desired that the cup pass from him, to the point of sweating blood.
His preference was contrary to the Father's will, and to yield to it would be the sin of disobedience.
That is temptation. . .to which he did not yield.

No. You're not describing temptation. Christ was presented with evil as an option. That is temptation. It is a issue concerning the choice of will. Inclination is an issue of having your will controlled.

He had full control of His will. He never lost it. That is Impeccability. To say that Christ was inclined to sin is to destroy the teaching of the Holy Trinity. God Incarnate.
 
Sez who?

And "seem" is a perception.
Feel free to Biblically demonstrate it as fact, in light of the fact that all wills are in agreement among them.

Words and application of words have natural connotations. Words mean specific things. Which is why I changed my statement from blend to Union. There is a huge difference between the two.

You used "subject", which has more than one meaning, as "subservient".
 
Well it was just an expression that related to the forbidding of the drinking of blood or eating an animal with the blood in it is the way that I took it.

But blood as the carrier of life and not the life itself is a very good point to make. At least after the fall though, no blood, no life, no breath. No breath, no spirit in the body. The central point I guess would be it all comes from God and depends on God, and He is the perfect Designer of everything.

The "Blood" of Christ is symbolic in the same way. It is a carrier of life. Through it, we are made alive. Some people actually believe in what some call "magic blood". I believe the blood of Jesus Christ actually fell in the very spot Adam was taken from the ground. I don't believe there is such a thing as the "eternal blood".
 
He could be tempted as we are if he were unable to sin.
It could just mean that He lived in the same sinful world and faced the same temptations we do. As we see in His temptation in the wilderness. The temptations were there but they were external only (just as they were with Adam and Eve). In the case off fallen man they are both external and internal. The external tempts and the internal desires what is tempted. Jesus did not have that conflict within Him as we do. He had one desire. To obey the Father even unto death, that He might Redeem His people from their sins---and that nature to sin.

But I say "it could just mean---" for a reason. I am not sure that is the case and I do not even know if that is the way I see it at this time.
 
No. You're not describing temptation. Christ was presented with evil as an option. That is temptation. It is a issue concerning the choice of will. Inclination is an issue of having your will controlled.
That is temptation on the part of the tempter.
He had full control of His will. He never lost it. That is Impeccability. To say that Christ was inclined to sin is to destroy the teaching of the Holy Trinity. God Incarnate.
Which doesn't mean he didn't desire it, as in the Garden of Gethsemane, where he most definitely desired it, making it an actual temptation to him, and which is the meaning of being tempted, as Eve desired it, which was the nature of her, and all, temptation.
It is no actual temptation if it is not desired and if it does not require an exercise of the will to refuse to yield to it.
 
That is temptation on the part of the tempter.

Which doesn't mean he didn't desire it, as in the Garden of Gethsemane, where he most definitely desired it, making it an actual temptation to him, and which is the meaning of being tempted, as Eve desired it, which was the nature of her, and all, temptation.
It is no actual temptation if it is not desired and if it does not require an exercise of the will to refuse to yield to it.

Doesn't desire it? Desire is will.

Why you trying to treat them differently?

You're literally saying that Jesus had the inclination to reject the will of the Father. When what you're quoting shows that He didn't.
 
No suppression whatsoever. There wasn't deviate will within the humanity of Jesus Christ. Suppression requires an alternate will.
Who said anything about deviating the Will? Civic agrees Jesus suppressed the expression of his Deity, in order to live on the level of an Unfallen Adam...
 
I said union. I asked you to start it because you referenced it. Also, I know I will participate [edit by moderator: inflammatory comment removed]
Pay attention. Civic hasn't been Moderated yet; and he's able to get his message across...
 
Words and application of words have natural connotations. Words mean specific things. Which is why I changed my statement from blend to Union. There is a huge difference between the two.

You used "subject", which has more than one meaning, as "subservient".
What word would you suggest I use to describe the facts presented by the NT in post #133.
 
Who said anything about deviating the Will? Civic agrees Jesus suppressed the expression of his Deity, in order to live on the level of an Unfallen Adam...

That is what is being contrasted here. No one had to say it. It is a natural contrast in the discussion.

I would not say "suppressed". I would say "veiled". You can see veiled as a sort of suppression but it means more. I think Civic would agree with me here in the context of a broader establishment of the Hypostatic Union.
 
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