The priests and Levites (priests) did not exist until the Mosaic covenant.Was the Samaritan in Covenant with God?
Were the priest and Levite in Covenant with God?
And Samaritans were not in the Mosaic covenant with God.
The priests and Levites (priests) did not exist until the Mosaic covenant.Was the Samaritan in Covenant with God?
Were the priest and Levite in Covenant with God?
But if I live i Minnesota, am I not still to regard the Muslim down the street as my neighbor if he needs what he is unable to provide for himself?No.
The Covenant went through Isaac not Ishmael.
Okay, assuming the separation of Samaritan and Jew occurred at the exile, that would put the Samaritans under the Mosaic covenant.Was the Samaritan in Covenant with God?
Were the priest and Levite in Covenant with God?
The Covenant came down to Moses around 1500 BC.The priests and Levites (priests) did not exist until the Mosaic covenant.
And Samaritans were not in the Mosaic covenant with God.
Let's go back to the original command in Leviticus 19:17-18 for the answer you do not seem to recognize.But if I live i Minnesota, am I not still to regard the Muslim down the street as my neighbor if he needs what he is unable to provide for himself?
Bingo!Okay, assuming the separation of Samaritan and Jew occurred at the exile, that would put the Samaritans under the Mosaic covenant.
So, you're saying our neighbor is the covenant people of God?
In the NT, that would be the church.
So you think the NT limits neighbor to the church?
Let me chew on that for awhile.
How were they half-Jews?The Covenant came down to Moses around 1500 BC.
The Samaritans were the offspring of their conquerors the Assyrians and Babylonians from 722 BC and 586 BC respectively. They were the offspring from them from around Samaria. They were half-"Jews" and still in Covenant with God.
I'm still chewing.Bingo!
Either Christ changed the Law of God in Leviticus 19:17-18 or there is a very serious error in understanding the command in Leviticus 19:17-18.
Pretty sharp, Eleanor.
I think I'll post THE LAW OF GOD PART 2 now.
See #44How were they half-Jews?
17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. 18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. Mt 5:17–18.
The Law Jesus Christ is referring to is the Law of God contained in the Pentateuch, the Five Books from Genesis to Deuteronomy.
Question #1. Do you agree?
Question #2 Do you also agree that any change in the Law of God destroys the Law of God?
That doesn't tell me how they were "half."See #44
The Levitical laws do not exist for anyone.Just as an aside...Paul seemed to be of the opinion that the Law still existed for the Jews. It's just that it had absolutely no bearing on him. A "Jew".
"All things are lawful to me but not all things are expedient..."
How does that work?
The Law Jesus Christ is referring to is the Law of God contained in the Pentateuch, the Five Books from Genesis to Deuteronomy.Very good. Did Jesus fulfill that Law? What of the Prophets?
With?
Did Christ's fulfilling of the Law destroy the Law?
Did Christ's changes too the Law ( "you have heard it said...but I say..." ) destroy the Law?
It works through our justification and the Presence of the Holy Spirit in our lives.Just as an aside...Paul seemed to be of the opinion that the Law still existed for the Jews. It's just that it had absolutely no bearing on him. A "Jew".
"All things are lawful to me but not all things are expedient..."
How does that work?
Both mother and father. Either through rape, marriage, fornication, concubines due to conquest by Assyrians and Babylonians and other groups of people in and outside of Samaria are offspring considered "half-"Jews" quarter-"Jews," etc.That doesn't tell me how they were "half."
Were they Jews by descent from their mother instead of their father, which does not count as his people in God's geneaology?
The ONLY Laws not in effect are the Sacrificial Laws.The Levitical laws do not exist for anyone.
Paul was not under the law, but if circumcision was for the purpose of evangelizing, he would have circumcision (Timothy), whereas, if circumcision was because the Judaizers believed circumcision was necessary for salvation, he would not allow circumcision (Titus).
Non-circumcision was lawful for Timothy, but not expedient for his ministry to Jews..
The Law Jesus Christ is referring to is the Law of God contained in the Pentateuch, the Five Books from Genesis to Deuteronomy.
Q1: Is this correct?
Fulfilling the Law as our Advocate is the reason of our justification. God declares His saved people "Not Guilty" of any sin against the Law as Christ fulfilled it, Christ is in us by faith, and this is the basis of our justification. God sees us as fulfilling the Law as well.
Horsefeathers. You can stare at "Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth" until the end of time and not come up with "But I say to you, do not resist an evil person; but whoever slaps you on your right cheek, turn the other to him also." Jesus is the new Law giver."You have heard it said..." is bringing up a particular statute of the Law. "But I say unto you..." is Christ's upholding that Law in particular and providing the "spirit of the Law" as opposed to the "letter of the Law" which was the underlying issue with the religious leaders on the Law of God.
The religious leaders without the Holy Spirit only understood the "letter of the Law." Paul as priest knew the "Letter" until illuminated by the Holy Spirit and then he understood and was able to write a great portion of the NT.
"The Prophets..." were fulfilled where His first coming was concerned. There are still many prophecies of Israel's Messiah to be yet fulfilled.
But only Father counts legally in God's reckoning.Both mother and father. Either through rape, marriage, fornication, concubines due to conquest by Assyrians and Babylonians and other groups of people in and outside of Samaria are offspring considered "half-"Jews" quarter-"Jews," etc.
The lineage of Jesus Christ is listed through both mother (Mary) and father (Joseph.)
Christ is the Old Lawgiver still.There being no other Law for Him to be concerned with at the time I'd have to say yes.
I think you might run afoul of the reason for justification here. Christ is our substitute. He fulfilled the Law where we could not and paid the blood price where we could not. Substitutionary atonement.
Horsefeathers. You can stare at "Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth" until the end of time and not come up with "But I say to you, do not resist an evil person; but whoever slaps you on your right cheek, turn the other to him also." Jesus is the new Law giver.
Paul called everything he knew and did prior to Christ a steaming pile of...stuff. He found that everything he, or we, needed is in Christ...not the Law.
Agreed.