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Mystery of the most holy trinity!

??

Your premise is that Acts 1:24 is about the Lord Jesus being prayed to. I showed you Acts 4:24 that directly refutes your premise that when the Lord is prayed to it's Jesus. That isn't a strawman.

Let me clue you in ion something.
Acts 1:24 and Acts 4:24 are not the same passages.
 
So in conclusion you can't produce a verse about that says to "pray" to Jesus in an explicit terms.

There is more than one way to express a truth claim.

Thanks again for affirming a person can speak to Jesus within their heart. It's so great and easy seeing those who deny the Lord Jesus is God refute their own ridiculous arguments.
 
Let me clue you in ion something.
Acts 1:24 and Acts 4:24 are not the same passages.
Agreed they are not, but what you should be seeing is that in Acts 4:24 when the Lord was prayed to it is not Jesus.

This is foundational, it’s a precedent. Along with Jesus never being prayed to in the Bible and Jesus’ teaching on only praying to the Father, a sound hermeneutic is established.

This isn’t a debate at this point. I am trying to show you what the Bible actually says. If you disagree, that’s your choice but don’t call it a strawman if you’re arguing from an untenable position.
 
There is more than one way to express a truth claim.

Thanks again for affirming a person can speak to Jesus within their heart. It's so great and easy seeing those who deny the Lord Jesus is God refute their own ridiculous arguments.
Jesus taught his followers to pray to the Father. I have no reason to believe they ever contradicted him or disobeyed him nor will I follow in your steps.
 
Agreed they are not, but what you should be seeing is that in Acts 4:24 when the Lord was prayed to it is not Jesus.


I already affirmed that in Acts 4:24 they were praying to the Father.

Your tactic (if you can call it one) is not working.
 
...but not only to the Father.

Matt 6
6But when you pray, go into your inner room, shut your door, and pray to your Father, who is unseen. And your Father, who sees what is done in secret, will reward you.

Matt 6
9So then, this is how you should pray:
‘Our Father in heaven,

hallowed be Your name.

This is explicit so I am going with it. Jesus couldn't have been any clearer about who the named person is as sole object of prayer. Praying to Jesus would create contradictions in the Bible and demonstrate disobedience.
 
Not when you or anyone else denies the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of prayer which proves He is God.
This is Bible truth.
Yes the Lord Jesus as Lord of lords .

Not the Son of man Jesus as lord many . He delighted in doing the will. . yoked with the Father, the one with power to raise the dead .

The Son of man Jesus cried out to the Holy Father .Not as I will with "no power" but you Father the one with all the power to raise the dead . Like all born again Christians.

Where the idea of three came from is a mystery? Most likely out of Catholicism saving a place for the "queen mother" they call Mary a doctrine passed on from the Old testament. . corrupted fathers, same Queen, different name .

The Father and Son of man make up the dynamic dual . Two represents one God has spoken throughout the Bible .
 
Matt 6
6But when you pray, go into your inner room, shut your door, and pray to your Father, who is unseen. And your Father, who sees what is done in secret, will reward you.

Matt 6
9So then, this is how you should pray:
‘Our Father in heaven,

hallowed be Your name.


No Greek word for "only" is found there.

Hey, keep searching!
 
No Greek word for "only" is found there.

Hey, keep searching!
Because the word only is not there it means you can pray to other's besides the Father? Hey, Jesus explicitly named who to pray to. By your reasoning, it should be okay to pray to whoever you want. That explains a few things.

What you seem to be doing is a common fallacy in Christian circles. Because there is a lack of contrary evidence, then your proposition that Jesus can be prayed to must be true because it has not yet been proven false. This is fallacious reasoning. You should side with the information the Bible has given you rather than assume what isn't explicitly denied is also true. It basically boils down to you just ignoring scripture in favor of personal beliefs.
 
Because the word only is not there it means you can pray to other's besides the Father?

Yes, because this is what took place in reference to Jesus in Acts 1:24-25.
 
Lord refers to Jesus (cf. Acts 1:21).

So easy.
And Jesus’ Father is also Lord. Since Jesus taught them to pray to the Father I have no reason to believe the apostles did differently.

There is a divine hierarchy and Jesus is head of the church, but the head of Jesus is God.

Colossians 1:18 - the head of the church is Jesus

1 Cor. 11:3 - the head of Jesus is God

1 Cor. 3:23 - we belong to Jesus and Jesus belongs to God
 
The context (cf. Acts 1:21) and 4 words used within the prayer that are used in association with the Lord elsewhere all demonstrate the "Lord" in Acts 1:24 refers to Jesus.
That post doesn’t support the idea that the Lord being prayed to is absolutely Jesus. The same word for Lord in the Greek is applied to God and other humans. There is a context in which Jesus is Lord and a context in which God is Lord and a context on which there are other lords. True, the writers didn’t always make it perfectly clear but nevertheless this is the reality. Check this pssage out.

1 Cor 8
5For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many so-called gods and lords), 6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we exist. And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.
 
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