Yes, because I go by how the lexicons properly define the word.
You have supplied zero lexical support for your position.
Fred, I do not despise the use of lexicons or any other research tool that better enables us to understand the scripture. My brother was a Greek professor for many years and I have nothing but respect for his level of expertise. However, that knowledge has not necessarily given him the insight of the Holy Spirit on some matters of doctrine. Just as the Pharisees were technical experts in their field, but that did not guarantee them the true sense of what they studied so intently.
You are proposing with your view that
immortality is an inherent feature of the human soul, and that even the wicked have immortality in the afterlife with their experience of eternal conscious torment.
Scripture says otherwise of the soul of mankind, ever since Creation. An endless life of both soul and body was
conditional for the originally-sinless couple from the very beginning, dependent upon their continued fellowship with their holy, immortal Creator, symbolized by the Tree of Life in the Garden. The moment that fellowship was lost in a single act of disobedience, death of their souls followed (resulting in a physical death sentence for their bodies also).
Christ Jesus the King of kings and Lord of lords
alone has immortality, according to 1 Timothy 6:16. The only way that humanity can have immortality of body and soul is by connection with Christ Jesus and
His inherent immortality. Those who are "IN Christ" while in this life have been given eternal life of the soul ("And I give unto them eternal life, and they shall never perish"). In the bodily resurrection, these who already have been given eternal life of the soul while in this life will also be given immortality of their bodies as well in a changed condition of incorruptibility that will never die again after the resurrection.
The wicked have no such connection with being "IN Christ", and so do not have that immortality of either body or soul. We are to fear Him who has power to destroy (
"apolesai") both body and soul in Gehenna (Matthew 10:28). THIS is presented as the ultimate fearful threat for humanity - not eternal conscious torment in this passage.
If God predicted the fiery death of the ultimate evil character of Satan the anointed cherub in Ezekiel 28:18-19, telling him that "
never shalt thou exist anymore" after he is burned to ashes upon the earth, then why do you think that the wicked dead of humanity are not to share this same fate? After all, the angels as originally created were "greater in power and might" than humanity, so if the wicked angels such as Satan were to be burned to ashes upon the earth, it is not beyond God's abilities to destroy the wicked dead of humanity as well, both body and soul.
Also, if you suppose that the wicked dead are to experience eternal conscious torment, then how do you explain Isaiah 26:13-19? In this passage, the wicked dead are contrasted with the righteous dead who belong to God. For the wicked dead, Isaiah says,
"They are dead, they shall not live; they are deceased, they shall not rise: therefore hast thou visited and
destroyed them, and made all their memory
to perish."
In contrast to these wicked dead who "shall not rise", Isaiah says of the righteous dead, "
Thy dead men shall live, together with my dead body shall they arise. Awake and sing, ye that dwell in dust: for thy dew is as the dew of herbs, and
the earth shall cast out the dead."
This Isaiah passage informs us that the bodies of the wicked dead are
never to rise from dwelling in the dust of the grave, in direct contrast to the bodies of those that belong to God, which
do arise from dwelling in the dust of the grave. If you deny the one fact, you deny the other. This is not just an OT reality that did not transfer to the NT.