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GOD CREATED MAN (ADAM) SINFUL

His Person was/ is Impeccable . His Person is Divine not human. Jesus was not a human person ( Nestorian heresy) but a Divine Person having a human nature assumed at His Incarnation. This is the biblical , historical and orthodox position in Christendom.
The Nestorian heresy is that that there were two persons in Jesus of Nazareth.
There was one person, with two natures in Jesus.
Hypostatic Union

1.
Jesus is a person. (1 Tim 2:5)

2. Jesus, the Person, has two natures- Divine and human (John 1:1, 14, 1 Timothy 3:16): Divine and human. This is the Hypostatic Union.( Col 2:9, Heb 1:3,2:16)
One person with two separate natures.
3. The Communicatio Idiomatum (Communication of the Properties) states that the attributes of His Divine nature and human nature are both ascribed to the one Person of Jesus. So Jesus can exhibit attributes of Divinity (Omnipresence, Omniscience, Omnipotence, . John 2:23, 3:13, 8:58, He was prayed to in Acts 7:59, John 14:13, He was is worshiped Matt 2:2:11, Rev 5:13-14) and at the same time exhibit attributes of His humanity( He was tempted, ate, prayed,wept, grew in wisdom and stature,was anointed,was baptized, the Father was greater, didn’t know the day or the hour of His Return, He cried My God my God why has Thou forsaken Me, He died etc.). The communicatio idiomatum does not mean that any part of the Divine nature was communicated to the human nature.
Two separate natures in one person.
4. The Man(anthropos) Jesus is what we perceive (if we were there 2000 years ago in Israel) and through the Man we encounter the Divine nature (Jesus knowing all things, is on earth while in heaven, answers prayer, forgiving sins, etc.).

5. The Person of Jesus will always be both Divine and human. (John 1:1,14,20:28, 1 John 5:20, 1 Timothy 2:5) Those who deny this fact are the spirit of antichrist. (1 John 4:1-4,2 John 7)
One person with two separate natures.
6. The Divine Nature is within the Trinity.(Father, Son and Holy Spirit)
7. Since the Person of Jesus claims the attributes of Divinity(John 3:13,8:58,Matthew 9:2,12:8), then the Person of Jesus is a member of the Trinity.( John 14-16, Math 28:19)
Anything said of either of Christ's two natures applies to the one Person of Christ, so that is how it is said that Christ died on the cross. The term "hypostatic union" refers to the two natures united in the one Person, so anything said of those two natures in the one Person applies to the whole Person. So we see that the Person of Christ is both God and man. The phrase hypostatic union was adopted by the general council at Chalcedon 451 AD. That council declared that the union of two natures is real (against Arius), not a mere indwelling of God in a man (against Nestorius), with a rational soul (against Apollinaris), and that in Christ’s Divine nature remains unchanged (against Eutyches).
Two separate natures in one person.
We need to look to the Monothelite Controversy which had to deal with whether there was one or two wills/minds in the person of Christ. The outcome was that there were two; one human and one divine with the human subjected to the divine. The eternal Son of God did not assume a part of a human nature without a mind, without a will, without human activity, but He assumed all the things that were planted in our nature by God.

Now then, to act (or in this case, speak) is the work of a person, but the form or nature is the cause of this action; for each person acts in accord with the form or nature which it has. A difference in causes (natures) produces a difference in effects (actions). Therefore, where there are different natures, there are also different activities. So in the one Person of Christ there are two natural actions, the divine and the human, each of which has its own essential attributes, functions, and actions. Jesus was thirty years old (according to His human nature Luke 3:23); according to His divine nature He could say: "Before Abraham was born, I am" (John 8:58). The question is did both natures know this and communicate it to the Person. The answer is yes because the divine nature with its corresponding divine will willed the human nature to respond in such a fashion in keeping with Christ's office and ministry. In the text regarding Mark 13:32, we have a slightly different situation here. Christ is acting (speaking) from His human nature, but, this time, the divine will does not allow the human will access to this knowledge. For this information is not to be published on earth. Therefore, as man, Christ cannot answer the question.
One person with two separate natures.
 
One person with two separate natures.

Two separate natures in one person.

One person with two separate natures.

Two separate natures in one person.

One person with two separate natures.
I’ve always declared Christ has 2 natures and is One Person.
 
I’ve always declared Christ has 2 natures and is One Person.
His Person was/ is Impeccable . His Person is Divine not human. Jesus was not a human person ( Nestorian heresy) but a Divine Person having a human nature assumed at His Incarnation. This is the biblical , historical and orthodox position in Christendom.
His (one) person was both divine and human because of its two natures. We are our nature.

5. The Person of Jesus will always be both Divine and human. (John 1:1,14,20:28, 1 John 5:20, 1 Timothy 2:5) Those who deny this fact are the spirit of antichrist. (1 John 4:1-4,2 John 7)
 
Define "free will"?
Before the fall: the power to choose/make freely and willingly, without external force or constraint, all moral choices; i.e., including to to be sinless.
It's not free will if you cannot choose both righteousness and sin.

After the fall: the power to choose freely and willing, without external force or constraint, what one prefers,
which is a practical free will.
 
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Before the fall: the power to choose/make freely and willingly, without external force or constraint, all moral choices; i.e., including to to be sinless.

After the fall: the power to choose freely and willing, without external force or constraint, what we prefer.
External force? Meaning
1) God does not force you to choose A or B against your desires ... or
2) God has not use His power (which can be defined as a force) to determine your desires?
3) 1 and 2
 
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External force? Meaning
1) God does not force you to choose A or B against your desires ... or
2) God has not use His power (which can be defined as a force) to determine your desires?
3) 1 and 2
1) - meaning I am not externally forced to do anything I do not prefer to do, nor externally constrained from doing anything I do prefer to do.
 
I take that not to mean spiritual evil, as in sin, but calamity, as in Is 53;10, 54:16, Ps 89:42, etc.
Evil is sin.
Missing the mark is sin.
Disobedience is sin.
Opposing God is sin.
Refusing to accept His WORD IS SIN.
Misunderstanding His WORD is sin.
Anything not God is sin.
Adam was not God therefore he was sin-ful.
 
Meaning I am not externally forced to do anything I do not prefer to do, nor externally constrained from doing anything I do prefer to do.

Evil is sin.
Missing the mark is sin.
Disobedience is sin.
Opposing God is sin.
Refusing to accept His WORD IS SIN.
Misunderstanding His WORD is sin.
Anything not God is sin.
Adam was not God therefore he was sin-ful.
Depends on how it is used in the OT.
 
S
Nope. . .Holy God cannot tolerate and does not author sin.
Scripture says He did.

Isaiah 45:6–7 (KJV) I am the Lord, and there is none else.
7 I form the light, and create darkness:
I make peace, and create evil:
I the Lord do all these things.

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