• **Notifications**: Notifications can be dismissed by clicking on the "x" on the righthand side of the notice.
  • **New Style**: You can now change style options. Click on the paintbrush at the bottom of this page.
  • **Donations**: If the Lord leads you please consider helping with monthly costs and up keep on our Forum. Click on the Donate link In the top menu bar. Thanks
  • **New Blog section**: There is now a blog section. Check it out near the Private Debates forum or click on the Blog link in the top menu bar.
  • Welcome Visitors! Join us and be blessed while fellowshipping and celebrating our Glorious Salvation In Christ Jesus.

God Clearly Defined Who Could Speak For Him

Thanks @Josheb. Anyone who claims to speak for God is off in my book, because I don't see any path for that in the Bible.
Do you mean those who explicitly state they are speaking on God's behalf and, therefore, everyone should listen and adhere to what that person says? (that inquiry is intentionally as a yes or no question)

Do you think the same way about those who post views in this discussion board they believe represent God?
John the disciple was able to write letters that spoke for God because Jesus gave him prophecy that has come true.
That is certainly part of why John was able to write a gospel, multiple letters, and an apocalyptic prophecy. That's, however, not all of the why.
John as far as I have found, is the only New Covenant person who met the criterial for speaking for God-- Sorry Muslims, Mormons, Catholics, etc.
What are those criteria? Please list them. If there are more than ten then please list only six.
The Gospel authors who were witnesses of Jesus spoke for God, but through Deuteronomy 17:6 and 19:15 that is expected.
I am unaware that a gospel requires a person to be a first-person witness. Where did you find that stated as a necessity? Do you also discard Mark's gospel?
 
I have no idea what the ECFs wanted me to believe or what they said about it. That is not the source of my information on the subject. I have various sources, most of them internal to the Bible.

And no proof that they aren't. It is not a big issue. It changes no truth. It does not change the inerrancy of the Bible.

What does that even mean? "The eyewitness who documented Matthew"?

Is this something the Holy Spirit showed you or a vision. Since I can find no scriptural reference to someone documenting Matthew I have no place to even start tracing back to this religious leader etc. So it is on you to do that so we can all know after all the study done on it since the first century, and the author of Matthew still not definitively known, that only you have found. I'm serious. Let me hear it. Then maybe I will be able to take your investigations seriously.

Is this in the Bible somewhere?

The reason I can quote Paul as validating himself as speaking for God is because Jesus appointed him for that purpose. It was not Paul who gives the first accounting of the Damascus Rd. It was Luke. And there were witnesses when Paul had that experience. "The men who were traveling with him stood speechless, hearing the voice but seeing no one." They led him to Damascus. In Acts 9: 10-15 we have the account of Ananias being sent to Paul to open his eyes and verse 16 the angel saying to Ananias who was afraid to go anywhere near Paul (Saul) "But the Lord said to him, 'Go, for he is a chosen instrument of mine to carry my name to the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel." It is likely Luke was one of the eyewitnesses traveling with Paul as he traveled with him a lot.

Deut 18:20-22 But the prophet who presumes to speak a word in my name that I have not commanded hi to speak, or who speaks in the name of other gods, that same prophet shall die. ANd if you say in your heart, "How may we know the word that the Lord has not spoken?----what a prophet speaks in the name of the Lord, if the word does not come to pass or come true, that is a word that the Lord has not spoken; the prophet has spoken it presumptuously.

Good news. You don't have to reject those verses to believe that the writers of the NT are speaking for God-----which is the same thing as God speaking through them, both OT and NT. The scripture I gave above from Acts, the other scriptures I have been giving you to validate the apostles since first I posted in this thread, show clearly that they are speaking for God. Jesus (God) appointed them and equipped them to do that. What have they spoken that has not come to pass other than the promised consummation which awaits Christ's return? Unless you don't trust God to oversee what his word says and to oversee what goes into it as canon, there is no need to ever question the validity of them speaking for God. They were given the very same proofs of the authority of what they spoke as Jesus was.
2 Cor 12:12 The signs of a true apostle were performed among you with utmost patience, with signs and wonders and mighty works.

I have no idea what the ECFs wanted me to believe or what they said about it. That is not the source of my information on the subject. I have various sources, most of them internal to the Bible.
I'd be interested in reading your evidence.
And no proof that they aren't. It is not a big issue. It changes no truth. It does not change the inerrancy of the Bible.

What does that even mean? "The eyewitness who documented Matthew"?

Is this something the Holy Spirit showed you or a vision. Since I can find no scriptural reference to someone documenting Matthew I have no place to even start tracing back to this religious leader etc. So it is on you to do that so we can all know after all the study done on it since the first century, and the author of Matthew still not definitively known, that only you have found. I'm serious. Let me hear it. Then maybe I will be able to take your investigations seriously.
The eyewitness who documented the Gospel of Matthew
The reason I can quote Paul as validating himself as speaking for God is because Jesus appointed him for that purpose. It was not Paul who gives the first accounting of the Damascus Rd. It was Luke. And there were witnesses when Paul had that experience. "The men who were traveling with him stood speechless, hearing the voice but seeing no one." They led him to Damascus. In Acts 9: 10-15 we have the account of Ananias being sent to Paul to open his eyes and verse 16 the angel saying to Ananias who was afraid to go anywhere near Paul (Saul) "But the Lord said to him, 'Go, for he is a chosen instrument of mine to carry my name to the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel." It is likely Luke was one of the eyewitnesses traveling with Paul as he traveled with him a lot.
Did any of those witnesses with Paul testify? Did Luke say he witnessed Paul state that? Did Luke even write the Gospel of Luke? There is no proof that Luke wrote that Gospel other than words from people who lived generations after that book was written. BTW, when was it written?
Deut 18:20-22 But the prophet who presumes to speak a word in my name that I have not commanded hi to speak, or who speaks in the name of other gods, that same prophet shall die. ANd if you say in your heart, "How may we know the word that the Lord has not spoken?----what a prophet speaks in the name of the Lord, if the word does not come to pass or come true, that is a word that the Lord has not spoken; the prophet has spoken it presumptuously.

Good news. You don't have to reject those verses to believe that the writers of the NT are speaking for God-----which is the same thing as God speaking through them, both OT and NT. The scripture I gave above from Acts, the other scriptures I have been giving you to validate the apostles since first I posted in this thread, show clearly that they are speaking for God. Jesus (God) appointed them and equipped them to do that. What have they spoken that has not come to pass other than the promised consummation which awaits Christ's return? Unless you don't trust God to oversee what his word says and to oversee what goes into it as canon, there is no need to ever question the validity of them speaking for God. They were given the very same proofs of the authority of what they spoke as Jesus was.
So when did Paul prophesy Jesus arrival to the world? When did Paul prophesize anything that came true?
2 Cor 12:12 The signs of a true apostle were performed among you with utmost patience, with signs and wonders and mighty works.
So Paul claimed that apostles are performing miracles. What does that prove?
 
Who was John writing to in 1 John? A specific group of people who are believers.
Why is he writing it to them? The internal evidence shows that it was a warning about a particular teaching that was trying to come into the church. (4:2,3). The teaching was that Christ only appeared to be human, so that there was no real incarnation and no divine Savior who was able to die for sinners. He only appeared to die. This teaching (docetism) is known from early Christian history.
So I'm to change the meaning of what was written because other people said so? I reread it and John is writing to men, fathers, brothers, young men, and little children. Sure seems like evidence that John was writing to EVERYONE.
So who is it that "went out from us" in 2:19? Those false teachers and it would apply to any false teachers or teaching. Who are the "us" the true church of Christ and its teachings as given by who? the apostles with Jesus as the chief cornerstone. What does it mean that they went out from us? Either they left that particular congregation, or the false teaching itself was "out" from the foundation laid by the Apostles. I would say definitely the latter and probably both.
You can try to read into it what you want to support your point of view, but to do that you need to twist the meaning. Read every word slow...what does it say? Not try it again and take out your biases.
So where is your expert analysis and evidence of fraud in your investigation that shows John was inditing all the other apostles as false teachers?
I never said he was inditing ALL THE OTHER APOSTLES. John was describing a church coup so who was it? Everyone they selected to replace them. Who were the apostles and was John referring to them?
 
I'd be interested in reading your evidence.

You joined a forum that upholds Christian orthodoxy in the rules and tells you that you cannot teach against the tenants of our faith.

One of those tenants is that we accept all the books in the Bible

If you want to come and tell us our faith is wrong when you never even bothered to learn it in the first place then the onus is on you to prove, actually prove, that all of our scholars have been wrong for 2000 years and the witness of the Holy Spirit is a lie.

There's on you to actually prove the most investigated book in the history of mankind is all a great big hoax.
 
Do you mean those who explicitly state they are speaking on God's behalf and, therefore, everyone should listen and adhere to what that person says? (that inquiry is intentionally as a yes or no question)
Outside of OT prophets and Jesus I reject any of those claims/
Do you think the same way about those who post views in this discussion board they believe represent God?
Yes. They do not represent God. I don't represent God. God is perfect so how can I, a mere man represent him? I can't. God may have given me a job to do just like he gave others a job to do, but we are workers. God did not ask me to represent him to others. I have a message, that I humbly try to share, but that is it.
What are those criteria? Please list them. If there are more than ten then please list only six.
I've presented them several times already. Deuteronomy 18:20-22, 17:6 and 19:15
I am unaware that a gospel requires a person to be a first-person witness. Where did you find that stated as a necessity? Do you also discard Mark's gospel?
Take a look at Jesus' response to the testimony confrontations he had documented in John. Eyewitness testimony is clear from the Law and it is clearly required today to prove someone's guilt or innocence.
 
You joined a forum that upholds Christian orthodoxy in the rules and tells you that you cannot teach against the tenants of our faith.

One of those tenants is that we accept all the books in the Bible

If you want to come and tell us our faith is wrong when you never even bothered to learn it in the first place then the onus is on you to prove, actually prove, that all of our scholars have been wrong for 2000 years and the witness of the Holy Spirit is a lie.
I never challenged your faith. Your faith is your heart. I challenge that belief based on the Law of God. You still don't see how you are rejecting the Law of God to believe the Bible in its' entirety, is the word of God.
There's on you to actually prove the most investigated book in the history of mankind is all a great big hoax.
You have not understood what I've written. THE BIBLE IS NOT A HOAX. THOSE ARE YOUR WORDS, NOT MINE. How can I be more clear than that. The Bible contains the inerrant word of God.
 
I never challenged your faith. Your faith is your heart. I challenge that belief based on the Law of God. You still don't see how you are rejecting the Law of God to believe the Bible in its' entirety, is the word of God.

You have not understood what I've written. THE BIBLE IS NOT A HOAX. THOSE ARE YOUR WORDS, NOT MINE. How can I be more clear than that. The Bible contains the inerrant word of God.


^^^^ forum statement of faith

Westminster Confession of Faith 1646

Chapter I. Of the Holy Scripture

I. Although the light of nature, and the works of creation and providence do so far manifest the goodness, wisdom, and power of God, as to leave men unexcusable, (Rom 2:14-15; Rom 1:19-20; Psa 19:1-3; Rom 1:32; Rom 2:1); yet are they not sufficient to give that knowledge of God, and of His will, which is necessary unto salvation, (1Co 1:21; 1Co 2:13-14). Therefore it pleased the Lord, at sundry times, and in divers manners, to reveal Himself, and to declare that His will unto His Church, (Hbr 1:1); and afterwards, for the better preserving and propagating of the truth, and for the more sure establishment and comfort of the Church against the corruption of the flesh, and the malice of Satan and of the world, to commit the same wholly unto writing, (Pro 22:19-21; Luk 1:3-4; Rom 15:4; Mat 4:4, 7, 10; Isa 8:19-20): which maketh the Holy Scripture to be most necessary, (2Ti 3:15; 2Pe 1:19); those former ways of God’s revealing His will unto His people being now ceased, (Hbr 1:1-2).

II. Under the name of Holy Scripture, or the Word of God written, are now contained all the books of the Old and New Testament, which are these:

All which are given by inspiration of God to be the rule of faith and life, (Luk 16:29, 31; Eph 2:20; Rev 22:18-19; 2Ti 3:16).


III. The books commonly called Apocrypha, not being of divine inspiration, are no part of the canon of the Scripture, and therefore are of no authority in the Church of God, nor to be any otherwise approved, or made use of, than other human writings, (Luk 24:27; Luke 24:44; Rom 3:2; 2Pe 1:21).


IV. The authority of the Holy Scripture, for which it ought to be believed, and obeyed, dependeth not upon the testimony of any man, or Church; but wholly upon God (who is truth itself) the author thereof: and therefore it is to be received, because it is the Word of God, (2Pe 1:19; 2Pe 1:21; 2Ti 3:16; 1Jo 5:9; 1Th 2:13).


V. We may be moved and induced by the testimony of the Church to an high and reverent esteem of the Holy Scripture, (1Ti 3:15). And the heavenliness of the matter, the efficacy of the doctrine, the majesty of the style, the consent of all the parts, the scope of the whole (which is, to give all glory to God), the full discovery it makes of the only way of man’s salvation, the many other incomparable excellencies, and the entire perfection thereof, are arguments whereby it doth abundantly evidence itself to be the Word of God: yet notwithstanding, our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof, is from the inward work of the Holy Spirit bearing witness by and with the Word in our hearts, (1Jo 2:20; 1Jo 2:27; Jhn 16:13-14; 1Co 2:10-12; Isa 59:21).


VI. The whole counsel of God concerning all things necessary for His own glory, man’s salvation, faith and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture: unto which nothing at any time is to be added, whether by new revelations of the Spirit or traditions of men, (2Ti 3:15-17; Gal 1:8-9; 2Th 2:2). Nevertheless, we acknowledge the inward illumination of the Spirit of God to be necessary for the saving understanding of such things as are revealed in the Word, (Jhn 6:45; 1Co 2:9-12): and that there are some circumstances concerning the worship of God, and government of the Church, common to human actions and societies, which are to be ordered by the light of nature, and Christian prudence, according to the general rules of the Word, which are always to be observed, (1Co 14:26; 1Co 14:40).


VII. All things in Scripture are not alike plain in themselves, nor alike clear unto all, (2Pe 3:16): yet those things which are necessary to be known, believed, and observed for salvation, are so clearly propounded, and opened in some place of Scripture or other, that not only the learned, but the unlearned, in a due use of the ordinary means, may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them, (Psa 119:105; Psa 119:130).


VIII. The Old Testament in Hebrew (which was the native language of the people of God of old), and the New Testament in Greek (which, at the time of the writing of it, was most generally known to the nations), being immediately inspired by God, and, by His singular care and providence, kept pure in all ages, are therefore authentical, (Mat 5:18); so as, in all controversies of religion, the Church is finally to appeal unto them, (Isa 8:20; Act 15:15; Jhn 5:39; Jhn 5:46). But, because these original tongues are not known to all the people of God, who have right unto, and interest in the Scriptures, and are commanded, in the fear of God, to read and search them, (Jhn 5:39); therefore they are to be translated into the vulgar language of every nation unto which they come, (1Co 14:6; 1Co 14:9; 1Co 14:11-12; 1Co 14:24; 1Co 14:27-28); that, the Word of God dwelling plentifully in all, they may worship Him in an acceptable manner, (Col 3:16); and, through patience and comfort of the Scriptures, may have hope, (Rom 15:4).


IX. The infallible rule of interpretation of Scripture is the Scripture itself: and therefore, when there is a question about the true and full sense of any Scripture (which is not manifold, but one), it must be searched and known by other places that speak more clearly, (2Pe 1:21-22; Act 15:15-16).


X. The supreme judge by which all controversies of religion are to be determined, and all decrees of councils, opinions of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits, are to be examined, and in whose sentence we are to rest, can be no other but the Holy Spirit speaking in the Scripture, (Mat 22:29; Mat 22:31; Eph 2:20; Act 28:25).

 
Outside of OT prophets and Jesus I reject any of those claims/
Hmmm.... You mean outside of the OT prophets, Jesus, and the gospel writers, yes? My inquiry turned out unexpectedly to be a sort of trick question because are you not telling everyone here your personal opinions that you believe you have garnered from scripture?
Yes. They do not represent God. I don't represent God.
But here you are telling everyone who and what to believe and I have yet to read a single sentence of scripture stating what you've posted.
God is perfect so how can I, a mere man represent him?
The OT prophets were not perfect. Neither were the gospel writers.
I can't. God may have given me a job to do just like he gave others a job to do, but we are workers. God did not ask me to represent him to others. I have a message, that I humbly try to share, but that is it.
What do you make of....

2 Corinthians 5:17-20
Therefore if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creature; the old things passed away; behold, new things have come. Now all these things are from God, who reconciled us to Himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation, namely, that God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and He has committed to us the word of reconciliation. Therefore, we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God were making an appeal through us; we beg you on behalf of Christ, be reconciled to God.

Paul was writing about himself and the other apostles, but do you think his statement about being an "ambassador" for Christ extends to all those who are in Christ?
I've presented them several times already. Deuteronomy 18:20-22, 17:6 and 19:15
Yes, you did post those verses, but you have misused all three texts and by that misuse proven you are unqualified to tell anyone anything. The Deuteronomy texts are explicitly about prophets. None of those passages says anything about a priest or a Judge. None of those texts say anything about a gospel writer. Nor do they say anything about an apostle, an evangelist, a pastor/preacher, or a teacher. It appears the Deuteronomy texts have not been properly exegeted and, as a consequence, they have been treated with the exact same kind of legalism Jesus decried in the Sadducees and Pharisees.

I, therefore, ask you once again: What are those criteria? Please list them. If there are more than ten then please list only six. Do not limit your answers to those who are prophets because many people speak for God in the Bible. In fact, God once gad a donkey speak for Him! (Num. 22:28)
Take a look at Jesus' response to the testimony confrontations he had documented in John. Eyewitness testimony is clear from the Law and it is clearly required today to prove someone's guilt or innocence.
That is not an answer to my question. I asked a very specific question.

Where did you find that stated as a necessity?

I would like you to provide me with a statement in scripture stating that being an eyewitness is a necessity for being able to speak for God. I would like you to provide that scripture and do so in a manner that does not contradict you speaking for God here in this thread while you tell everyone who, what and how to believe.

I would also like you answer my other question: Do you also discard Mark's gospel?


You do understand Mark was not one of the twelve, yes? There's no record in scripture of John, who was called Mark (Acts 12:12, 25), ever meeting Jesus. What about Paul. Paul was reportedly summoned into service by Jesus long after Jesus had resurrected and ascended yet is likely Paul did meet Jesus and heard him preach every time Jesus taught in Jerusalem (that is, if we can trust Luke's second-hand report). Do you discard all the Pauline epistles?
.
 
Hmmm.... You mean outside of the OT prophets, Jesus, and the gospel writers, yes? My inquiry turned out unexpectedly to be a sort of trick question because are you not telling everyone here your personal opinions that you believe you have garnered from scripture?
Yes the words of Jesus are recorded in testimonies. No personal opinions; strictly based on God's Law.
But here you are telling everyone who and what to believe and I have yet to read a single sentence of scripture stating what you've posted.
I've presented the Law references numerous times. I also presented the words of Jesus that confirmed the Law.
The OT prophets were not perfect. Neither were the gospel writers.
God says they were inspired therefore I believe that the word of God through those sources is perfect.
What do you make of....

2 Corinthians 5:17-20
Therefore if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creature; the old things passed away; behold, new things have come. Now all these things are from God, who reconciled us to Himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation, namely, that God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and He has committed to us the word of reconciliation. Therefore, we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God were making an appeal through us; we beg you on behalf of Christ, be reconciled to God.

Paul was writing about himself and the other apostles, but do you think his statement about being an "ambassador" for Christ extends to all those who are in Christ?
Are you am ambassador? I consider myself one--I will spread the words of Jesus whenever I can.
Yes, you did post those verses, but you have misused all three texts and by that misuse proven you are unqualified to tell anyone anything. The Deuteronomy texts are explicitly about prophets.
Yes they are. I agree and I think I've always stated that.
None of those passages says anything about a priest or a Judge. None of those texts say anything about a gospel writer.
Jesus stated he was the Messiah and he was God. That alone gives him the authority to speak from God. But it's nonsense unless he is proved through eyewitness testimony to be the Messiah and God. Jesus addressed this three times in the Gospel of John. Jesus also assigned his eyewitnesses (Mark 13:9-11), promised them the Holy Spirit to help them get the details perfect, then breathed the Holy Spirit into them on his first day of his resurrection. Jesus set in motion the eyewitness testimony to prove he was God.

Nor do they say anything about an apostle, an evangelist, a pastor/preacher, or a teacher. It appears the Deuteronomy texts have not been properly exegeted and, as a consequence, they have been treated with the exact same kind of legalism Jesus decried in the Sadducees and Pharisees.
There is nothing approving any of those people to speak for God.
I, therefore, ask you once again: What are those criteria? Please list them. If there are more than ten then please list only six. Do not limit your answers to those who are prophets because many people speak for God in the Bible. In fact, God once gad a donkey speak for Him! (Num. 22:28)

That is not an answer to my question. I asked a very specific question.

Where did you find that stated as a necessity?

I would like you to provide me with a statement in scripture stating that being an eyewitness is a necessity for being able to speak for God. I would like you to provide that scripture and do so in a manner that does not contradict you speaking for God here in this thread while you tell everyone who, what and how to believe.
I've provided all that you need. Dig into the details and if you have any questions I'll be happy to address them. You have all the citations necessary. I didn't give you the citations for Jesus addressing eyewitness testimony but all you have to do is search and read them from John. Jesus validated that the Law requirement for eyewitness testimony was required, then he went through the process, and took his eyewitnesses everywhere with him, told them they were going to be his eyewitnesses, then promised and gave them the Holy Spirit. I don't know what additional evidence would be needed.
I would also like you answer my other question: Do you also discard Mark's gospel?
The author of the Gospel of Matthew copied from Mark because he knew that author was an eyewitness. That's one reason to believe he was an eyewitness. There are also a few additional details in the Gospel that help identify the author and it is one of those Jesus assigned.
 
Last edited:

^^^^ forum statement of faith

Westminster Confession of Faith 1646

Chapter I. Of the Holy Scripture

I. Although the light of nature, and the works of creation and providence do so far manifest the goodness, wisdom, and power of God, as to leave men unexcusable, (Rom 2:14-15; Rom 1:19-20; Psa 19:1-3; Rom 1:32; Rom 2:1); yet are they not sufficient to give that knowledge of God, and of His will, which is necessary unto salvation, (1Co 1:21; 1Co 2:13-14). Therefore it pleased the Lord, at sundry times, and in divers manners, to reveal Himself, and to declare that His will unto His Church, (Hbr 1:1); and afterwards, for the better preserving and propagating of the truth, and for the more sure establishment and comfort of the Church against the corruption of the flesh, and the malice of Satan and of the world, to commit the same wholly unto writing, (Pro 22:19-21; Luk 1:3-4; Rom 15:4; Mat 4:4, 7, 10; Isa 8:19-20): which maketh the Holy Scripture to be most necessary, (2Ti 3:15; 2Pe 1:19); those former ways of God’s revealing His will unto His people being now ceased, (Hbr 1:1-2).

II. Under the name of Holy Scripture, or the Word of God written, are now contained all the books of the Old and New Testament, which are these:

All which are given by inspiration of God to be the rule of faith and life, (Luk 16:29, 31; Eph 2:20; Rev 22:18-19; 2Ti 3:16).


III. The books commonly called Apocrypha, not being of divine inspiration, are no part of the canon of the Scripture, and therefore are of no authority in the Church of God, nor to be any otherwise approved, or made use of, than other human writings, (Luk 24:27; Luke 24:44; Rom 3:2; 2Pe 1:21).


IV. The authority of the Holy Scripture, for which it ought to be believed, and obeyed, dependeth not upon the testimony of any man, or Church; but wholly upon God (who is truth itself) the author thereof: and therefore it is to be received, because it is the Word of God, (2Pe 1:19; 2Pe 1:21; 2Ti 3:16; 1Jo 5:9; 1Th 2:13).


V. We may be moved and induced by the testimony of the Church to an high and reverent esteem of the Holy Scripture, (1Ti 3:15). And the heavenliness of the matter, the efficacy of the doctrine, the majesty of the style, the consent of all the parts, the scope of the whole (which is, to give all glory to God), the full discovery it makes of the only way of man’s salvation, the many other incomparable excellencies, and the entire perfection thereof, are arguments whereby it doth abundantly evidence itself to be the Word of God: yet notwithstanding, our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof, is from the inward work of the Holy Spirit bearing witness by and with the Word in our hearts, (1Jo 2:20; 1Jo 2:27; Jhn 16:13-14; 1Co 2:10-12; Isa 59:21).


VI. The whole counsel of God concerning all things necessary for His own glory, man’s salvation, faith and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture: unto which nothing at any time is to be added, whether by new revelations of the Spirit or traditions of men, (2Ti 3:15-17; Gal 1:8-9; 2Th 2:2). Nevertheless, we acknowledge the inward illumination of the Spirit of God to be necessary for the saving understanding of such things as are revealed in the Word, (Jhn 6:45; 1Co 2:9-12): and that there are some circumstances concerning the worship of God, and government of the Church, common to human actions and societies, which are to be ordered by the light of nature, and Christian prudence, according to the general rules of the Word, which are always to be observed, (1Co 14:26; 1Co 14:40).


VII. All things in Scripture are not alike plain in themselves, nor alike clear unto all, (2Pe 3:16): yet those things which are necessary to be known, believed, and observed for salvation, are so clearly propounded, and opened in some place of Scripture or other, that not only the learned, but the unlearned, in a due use of the ordinary means, may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them, (Psa 119:105; Psa 119:130).


VIII. The Old Testament in Hebrew (which was the native language of the people of God of old), and the New Testament in Greek (which, at the time of the writing of it, was most generally known to the nations), being immediately inspired by God, and, by His singular care and providence, kept pure in all ages, are therefore authentical, (Mat 5:18); so as, in all controversies of religion, the Church is finally to appeal unto them, (Isa 8:20; Act 15:15; Jhn 5:39; Jhn 5:46). But, because these original tongues are not known to all the people of God, who have right unto, and interest in the Scriptures, and are commanded, in the fear of God, to read and search them, (Jhn 5:39); therefore they are to be translated into the vulgar language of every nation unto which they come, (1Co 14:6; 1Co 14:9; 1Co 14:11-12; 1Co 14:24; 1Co 14:27-28); that, the Word of God dwelling plentifully in all, they may worship Him in an acceptable manner, (Col 3:16); and, through patience and comfort of the Scriptures, may have hope, (Rom 15:4).


IX. The infallible rule of interpretation of Scripture is the Scripture itself: and therefore, when there is a question about the true and full sense of any Scripture (which is not manifold, but one), it must be searched and known by other places that speak more clearly, (2Pe 1:21-22; Act 15:15-16).


X. The supreme judge by which all controversies of religion are to be determined, and all decrees of councils, opinions of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits, are to be examined, and in whose sentence we are to rest, can be no other but the Holy Spirit speaking in the Scripture, (Mat 22:29; Mat 22:31; Eph 2:20; Act 28:25).

I quote the word of God to prove my point, but it hurts your feelings because you love theology more than the word of God, so you are trying to get me thrown off. Am I reading this correctly? Why don't you prove me wrong? I've never threatened you or your faith, and I believe in the word of God and Jesus as my savior. That's not good enough for you?
 
So I'm to change the meaning of what was written because other people said so? I reread it and John is writing to men, fathers, brothers, young men, and little children. Sure seems like evidence that John was writing to EVERYONE.
Well, you have said that when John is talking about false teachers and anti-Christs that he is talking about all the other apostles. And I am asking where it says that? And don't now try and say again that you never said that or I will re-post the quote from you again. Also, I said a specific group of believers and is that not the same thing as you have given.
You can try to read into it what you want to support your point of view, but to do that you need to twist the meaning. Read every word slow...what does it say? Not try it again and take out your biases.
Read all the surrounding text. I have said nothing but what the book itself says. One does not even have to have a bias (though all people do including you, so take your bias out of it) to understand the plain words and circumstance in which they were written. And there is historical evidence of a particular false teaching that was plaguing the church. As I said!
I never said he was inditing ALL THE OTHER APOSTLES. John was describing a church coup so who was it? Everyone they selected to replace them. Who were the apostles and was John referring to them?
https://christcentered.community.forum/threads/welcome-just-the-facts.2732/post-115851
The following is from JustTheFacts post #24 in "Welcome-JustTheFacts

"How could these men who witnessed Jesus’ resurrected possibly be misled by false teachers? Then I read the following words written by John and I realized what Jesus meant:

Dear children, this is the last hour; and as you have heard that the antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have come. This is how we know it is the last hour. They went out from us, but they did not really belong to us. For if they had belonged to us, they would have remained with us; but their going showed that none of them belonged to us. (1 John 2:18-19)

Jesus wasn’t warning his Church leaders about losing their faith and belief in him, Jesus was telling them they would fail as managers. The only way the disciples could be led astray was through failing as leaders of the early CJC. And fail they did, just as Jesus warned, they were led astray.

The four chosen disciples were fishermen who didn’t have the experience nor foresight to start the biggest enterprise ever to exist—the Church. John stated that they selected replacements and successors, but “none of them belonged to us.” The men the disciples chose to replace them as leaders in the beginning Church were ALL false teachers. John doesn’t tell us there was one, or even a few false teachers, he told us they were ALL false teachers. John did not describe the infiltration of false teachers into the CJC, he described a coup—a total takeover. The disciples were led astray by smooth talking false teachers who weren’t interested in spreading the Good News of Jesus, they were interested in spreading their religion for their own benefit."

 
The eyewitness who documented the Gospel of Matthew
Your answer to the "eyewitess who documented the Gospel of Mathew" is "the eyewitness who documented the Gospel of Mathew?" Great. That clear it up beautifully.
 
I quote the word of God to prove my point, but it hurts your feelings because you love theology more than the word of God, so you are trying to get me thrown off. Am I reading this correctly? Why don't you prove me wrong? I've never threatened you or your faith, and I believe in the word of God and Jesus as my savior. That's not good enough for you?

I provided my beliefs concerning the Holy Scriptures and hyperlinked to over 50 verses of the Bible which supports my beliefs and my arguments about the Scriptures...

Instead of examining God's Word, you dare to tell me I'm I love theology more than the Word of God??????

I have a real and living God, not here selling my imagination like some.
 
So when did Paul prophesy Jesus arrival to the world? When did Paul prophesize anything that came true?
Paul was an apostle not a prophet. But if you investigate the biblical meaning of Prophet you will find that is not always about fore telling future events but is forth telling the word of God that is in the Bible.
 
Paul was an apostle not a prophet. But if you investigate the biblical meaning of Prophet you will find that is not always about fore telling future events but is forth telling the word of God that is in the Bible.
That's a very general claim. Please reference the scripture to help me understand the "biblical meaning of Prophet." In addition, the claim is that Paul can speak for God, therefore there must be some word of God that gives this authority. Please provide that reference too.
 
That's a very general claim. Please reference the scripture to help me understand the "biblical meaning of Prophet." In addition, the claim is that Paul can speak for God, therefore there must be some word of God that gives this authority. Please provide that reference too.

We accept Paul as an apostle because he was appointed by Jesus.

We believe his appointment by Jesus to an Apostle of Christ based on the testimony of Luke (Acts 9) and the testimony Peter (2 Peter 3:15-16) in Scripture, and based on the fact his teachings nowhere contradict and always instead are found to confirm the teachings of Christ and Scripture.

"All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness," 2 Timothy 3:16

I noted in post 10:

Jesus' miracles confirmed His authority as being from God. All the Apostles performed miracles as well to confirm their authority as being from Jesus.

The canon is closed.
 
Last edited:
That's a very general claim. Please reference the scripture to help me understand the "biblical meaning of Prophet." In addition, the claim is that Paul can speak for God, therefore there must be some word of God that gives this authority. Please provide that reference too.
I have provided the reference for Paul's authority and all the other apostles. So have others participating in the thread. If you actually pay attention to the Prophets in the Bible they are not always telling of future events but are giving a message from God. That is the most basic meaning of prophesy. Give a message from God. Look it up. I cannot help you understand what you cannot or will not understand.

When and if you get sincere about your postings, we can continue.
 
Yes the words of Jesus are recorded in testimonies. No personal opinions; strictly based on God's Law.
Which is a personal opinion. God's Law never stipulates the Law is the only measure. By adding something never stated in the Law to the Law (the Law is the only measure) a huge paradox has occurred: The Law has been violated!

This is a fairly common mistake. I call it the problem of "onlyism." It happens when we unwittingly insert the word "only" where it does not exist. A very common example of this would be when people cite 1 John 3:4 to say sin is (only) lawlessness, or sin is (only) measured by the breaking of the Law. The fact is the whole of scripture provides several measures and definitions of sin, and the Law is NOT the only one.


I gotta go but I'll take up the rest of your post when I can.
 
Which is a personal opinion. God's Law never stipulates the Law is the only measure. By adding something never stated in the Law to the Law (the Law is the only measure) a huge paradox has occurred: The Law has been violated!

This is a fairly common mistake. I call it the problem of "onlyism." It happens when we unwittingly insert the word "only" where it does not exist. A very common example of this would be when people cite 1 John 3:4 to say sin is (only) lawlessness, or sin is (only) measured by the breaking of the Law. The fact is the whole of scripture provides several measures and definitions of sin, and the Law is NOT the only one.


I gotta go but I'll take up the rest of your post when I can.
By no personal opinions I mean the testimony for Jesus fulfills the Law Requirements to prove Jesus to all future nations and people.
 
Back
Top