• **Notifications**: Notifications can be dismissed by clicking on the "x" on the righthand side of the notice.
  • **New Style**: You can now change style options. Click on the paintbrush at the bottom of this page.
  • **Donations**: If the Lord leads you please consider helping with monthly costs and up keep on our Forum. Click on the Donate link In the top menu bar. Thanks
  • **New Blog section**: There is now a blog section. Check it out near the Private Debates forum or click on the Blog link in the top menu bar.
  • Welcome Visitors! Join us and be blessed while fellowshipping and celebrating our Glorious Salvation In Christ Jesus.

Did Christ actually suffer eternal torment on our behalf?

As demonstration of my Biblical error, you need to to present a point-by-point explanation of 2 Co 5:1-9, being true to its content and import, to Biblically demonstrate, instead of just assert, my error.
I did!!! I even showed you what the passage is saying.
Scripture isn't even talking about two different human bodies in 1 Co 15:35-41.
WE weren't even talking about 1 Cor 15:35-41. What is your point?
Scripture isn't even talking about faith in Lk 8:5-8.
WE weren't even talking about that passage. What is your point?
Scripture isn't even talking about physical life and death in 2 Co 5:1-9.
"For we know that if the earthly tent we live in (our body)---"an eternal house in heaven" (glorified body)----"as long as we are at home in the body" (alive in our physical body) "prefer to be away form the body" (physical death) "at home with the Lord" (loss of our earthly body)

What in the world do you think that passage is talking about?
 
Thanks for your approval.

It is what I have been saying all along and you keep arguing with me that righteousness and justification are both imputed. Righteousness is imputed. Justification is actual.
To put a fine point of finish to it:

The spiritual reality of it is that imputed righteousness and justification must always occur together,
there can never be one without the other, there is never the operation of imputation of righteousness without the operation of justification,
so that to speak of one in actuality is effectively speaking of the other.
 
One must be careful in placing finite criteria on God and His ways. All who are lost will endure an eternal torment beyond human comprehension. And God is just in doing so.

That's apples and oranges.

Not to derail this thread, but I don't believe Christ is God so from my perspective no finite criteria is being placed on God.
 
I did!!! I even showed you what the passage is saying.

WE weren't even talking about 1 Cor 15:35-41. What is your point?

WE weren't even talking about that passage. What is your point?
Fair question.

Just as the actual subjects of those passages where never actually stated (faith, etc.), but we ascertain there what those subjects are,
so the immortal human spirit as the animating principle of human life is not actually stated in 2 Co 5:1-9, but we ascertain there the human spirit as the animating principle of human life.
"For we know that if the earthly tent we live in (our body)---"an eternal house in heaven" (glorified body)----"as long as we are at home in the body" (alive in our physical body) "prefer to be away form the body" (physical death) "at home with the Lord" (loss of our earthly body)
"For while we (our spirits) are in this tent (body), we (our spirits) groan and are burdened, because we (our spirits) do not wish to be unclothed (by loss of the human body in death) but to be clothed with our heavenly dwelling (glorified bodies), so that what is mortal may be swallowed up by life (immortal resurrection life)." (2 Co 5:4)

The immortal human spirit does not want to be separated from its union with the physical human body which it animates.
What in the world do you think that passage is talking about?
It is talking about the separation of the immortal human spirit from its body; i.e., death, and it is there that I ascertain the immortal human spirit is the animating principle of physical human life.
 
Fair question.

Just as the actual subjects of those passages where never actually stated (faith, etc.), but we ascertain there what those subjects are,
so the immortal human spirit as the animating principle of human life is not actually stated in 2 Co 5:1-9, but we ascertain there the human spirit as the animating principle of human life.

"For while we (our spirits) are in this tent (body), we (our spirits) groan and are burdened, because we (our spirits) do not wish to be unclothed (by loss of the human body in death) but to be clothed with our heavenly dwelling (glorified bodies), so that what is mortal may be swallowed up by life (immortal resurrection life)." (2 Co 5:4)

The immortal human spirit does not want to be separated from its union with the physical human body which it animates.

It is talking about the separation of the immortal human spirit from its body; i.e., death, and it is there that I ascertain the immortal human spirit is the animating principle of physical human life.
Just a point here, not that anyone thinks you are saying otherwise, but that immortal human spirit of each one of us is made by, and given by God. It is nothing of itself.

And, (another added free comment), the notion that we are of ourselves something on some level capable of making God sit up and take notice is absurd. God owes us nothing, certainly he does not owe us respect as fellow residents of 'what is'. We are his handiwork, not our own. We belong to him to do with as he pleases. We are nothing apart from him.
 
In another thread, @Eleanor said:
"To posit that the purpose of Christ's brutal atoning death included anything else that was less,
that anything less would apply to all without exception, and of no faith,
contrary to the Biblical testimony of the meaning of blood sacrifice as presented in the OT sacrifices and in authoritative NT apostolic teaching,
is to hi-jack Christ's atonement for the sake of serving your personal theology,
altering the terms of his sacrifice, both in meaning (expiation) and application (by belief in him), which is
as grievous a misrepresentation of this sacred reality as were the false charges against him.
To attempt to manipulate such a staggering Christian foundational reality, all for the sake of one's own personal theology,
betrays an insufficient apprehension of the cross."


I'm not sure I'm understanding her right, but it seems she implies that Christ's physical death is all that was required as payment for our sin. I have heard that before —in fact, I will never forget the look on my own mother's face when she said, "...are you saying that Christ went to [everlasting torment] in our place???"

Yes, I think he did. Did he actually die spiritually in our place? In a sense, yes, in that he did pay our penalty of 'everlasting' death, which to my mind is both temporally physical, and eternally physical and spiritual. But God cannot be killed. Being eternal/infinite, Christ was not defeated there. Note that it says that God raised him from the dead (Acts 2:24, Romans 8:11), and not that he raised himself, though he was himself God. (This is part of my reasoning why I suppose the "eternal" punishment may best be understood by us to be a matter of infinity of degree, rather than an eternal extension of time —well, that, and the notion I carry, for other reasons, that it will be happening outside this temporal envelope we inhabit.) (This is also why I insist, not only in his resurrection, but on his payment of our sin, that he HAD to be God himself. No creature can bear that penalty and 'survive'.) Here also, I think we see beautiful demonstration, of the unity of the Godhead and relationship of the persons of the Trinity, and of God's power —able to go to, or even beyond, the edge of disaster, and that, intentionally, but come out of it the victor.

There are many examples of others that have suffered worse physically, and died more (physically) horribly. I don't think that any suffered more psychologically/emotionally/mentally —but to the limits of their endurance, or even beyond, yes. But, regardless, the protests I have heard against it being more than his physical death, to me, truncate the meaning of Adam's disobedience and the curse, in both what has been imputed to us, and what we deserve in our rebellion. Our debt is not paid off in our physical death.

To me, it seems an awful stretch to say that his physical death alone was what saves us. But that is me, and something I have pretty much always assumed, and as far as I know, has not been proven wrong. I think he went to Hell/'Death'/Lake of Fire and suffered every bit the intensity of the punishment we owe —death— time irrelevant. But I admit to much of my view being by my reasoning from Scripture, and am open to better thinking.

Thoughts?
At Genesis 2:7 God tells us how he created the first man Adam. It says, "And Jehovah God went on to form the man out of dust from the ground and to blow into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living soul."

So to put Genesis 2:7 in my own words it's basically saying that God took dust from the ground and formed the dust from the ground into a flesh and blood human body then blew the breath(spirit) of life into the flesh and blood human body and that flesh and blood human body became a living soul or living person.

So since the scriptures say the flesh and blood human body became a living soul or living person that means that when the breath(spirit) of life leaves our flesh and blood human body we are no longer living souls or living persons. What I'm saying is that we, us human beings don't have living souls but we human beings are living souls, or living persons. Jesus Christ came in the likeness of first human being Adam was, so when the breath(spirit) of life left his body when he was sacrificed he was no longer a living soul or living person for parts of three days, when on the third day after his death he was resurrected as a life giving spirit. He was again a living person but he wasn't a human being because he sacrificed his human body his human life for mankind. Now the only begotten son is an immortal incorruptible spirit person. So Jesus Christ when he sacrificed his human body his human life he was dead for three days, he had no consciousness so he couldn't think, feel, talk, etc. for parts of three days until he was resurrected back to life as a living person. So Jesus wasn't tormented when he was in Hades for three days.
 
Jesus didn't suffer eternal torment extensively but intensively.
 
In addition, human eternal torment does not equate to divine eternal torment.
Of course, it does.

Jesus suffered His entire life. Everything culminated at the cross.
He suffered as the Holy One in daily association with sinners in a sin-cursed world.
Since He tread the winepress alone His loneliness would have been oppressive.
He suffered in body and soul.
And although He was aware of that He was to be made an offering and burdened by the sin of His people the separation of becoming sin for His people was greater for Him as Son separated from His Father than for us not being part of that bond to be born separated from God by sin and even after being born-again still not experiencing God the Father in total as the Only-Begotten had with His Father.
The suffering was intensive, not extensive.
 
Of course, it does.

Jesus suffered His entire life. Everything culminated at the cross.
He suffered as the Holy One in daily association with sinners in a sin-cursed world.
Since He tread the winepress alone His loneliness would have been oppressive.
He suffered in body and soul.
And although He was aware of that He was to be made an offering and burdened by the sin of His people the separation of becoming sin for His people was greater for Him as Son separated from His Father than for us not being part of that bond to be born separated from God by sin and even after being born-again still not experiencing God the Father in total as the Only-Begotten had with His Father.
The suffering was intensive, not extensive.
Nothing divine is on the same level as the human.
Everything divine is infintely worth more than the human.
 
Of course, it does.
Is it being suggested the perfect, holy, and always righteous God, His words, and His experienced can and should be anthropomorphized AND anthropomorphized from the sinful position?
Jesus suffered His entire life. Everything culminated at the cross.
Is he suffering now?
He suffered as the Holy One in daily association with sinners in a sin-cursed world.
Is he now suffering?
Since He tread the winepress alone His loneliness would have been oppressive.
Hmmm... was he lonely? Is he lonely now?
He suffered in body and soul.
Is he suffering now?
The suffering was intensive, not extensive.
Then it is not eternal.
 
Is it being suggested the perfect, holy, and always righteous God, His words, and His experienced can and should be anthropomorphized AND anthropomorphized from the sinful position?
He is.
Is he suffering now?
Nope.
Is he now suffering?
Nope. He's pissed.
Hmmm... was he lonely? Is he lonely now?
Nope. He and the Father are one.
Is he suffering now?
Nope.
Then it is not eternal.
What isn't eternal? His suffering? No, it is not. But He did suffer throughout His life culminating on the cross. It wasn't eternal, it was intensive. Eternal separation in three hours time.
Go figure.
 
In another thread, @Eleanor said:
"To posit that the purpose of Christ's brutal atoning death included anything else that was less,
that anything less would apply to all without exception, and of no faith,
contrary to the Biblical testimony of the meaning of blood sacrifice as presented in the OT sacrifices and in authoritative NT apostolic teaching,
is to hi-jack Christ's atonement for the sake of serving your personal theology,
altering the terms of his sacrifice, both in meaning (expiation) and application (by belief in him), which is
as grievous a misrepresentation of this sacred reality as were the false charges against him.
To attempt to manipulate such a staggering Christian foundational reality, all for the sake of one's own personal theology,
betrays an insufficient apprehension of the cross."


I'm not sure I'm understanding her right, but it seems she implies that Christ's physical death is all that was required as payment for our sin. I have heard that before —in fact, I will never forget the look on my own mother's face when she said, "...are you saying that Christ went to [everlasting torment] in our place???"

Yes, I think he did. Did he actually die spiritually in our place? In a sense, yes, in that he did pay our penalty of 'everlasting' death, which to my mind is both temporally physical, and eternally physical and spiritual. But God cannot be killed. Being eternal/infinite, Christ was not defeated there. Note that it says that God raised him from the dead (Acts 2:24, Romans 8:11), and not that he raised himself, though he was himself God. (This is part of my reasoning why I suppose the "eternal" punishment may best be understood by us to be a matter of infinity of degree, rather than an eternal extension of time —well, that, and the notion I carry, for other reasons, that it will be happening outside this temporal envelope we inhabit.) (This is also why I insist, not only in his resurrection, but on his payment of our sin, that he HAD to be God himself. No creature can bear that penalty and 'survive'.) Here also, I think we see beautiful demonstration, of the unity of the Godhead and relationship of the persons of the Trinity, and of God's power —able to go to, or even beyond, the edge of disaster, and that, intentionally, but come out of it the victor.

There are many examples of others that have suffered worse physically, and died more (physically) horribly. I don't think that any suffered more psychologically/emotionally/mentally —but to the limits of their endurance, or even beyond, yes. But, regardless, the protests I have heard against it being more than his physical death, to me, truncate the meaning of Adam's disobedience and the curse, in both what has been imputed to us, and what we deserve in our rebellion. Our debt is not paid off in our physical death.

To me, it seems an awful stretch to say that his physical death alone was what saves us. But that is me, and something I have pretty much always assumed, and as far as I know, has not been proven wrong. I think he went to Hell/'Death'/Lake of Fire and suffered every bit the intensity of the punishment we owe —death— time irrelevant. But I admit to much of my view being by my reasoning from Scripture, and am open to better thinking.

Thoughts?
What Jesus suffered is what those with unrepented sin will suffer, separation from God, and yet Christ was sinless. When He was on the cross, He cried out, "My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me?" He felt separated from God. He experienced the torment that the wicked will experience. The wages of sin is eternal death. Christ died the equivalent of that death. He drank the cup to it’s bitter dregs, so that we will not have to drink it. Christ died the equivalent of the second death for us. We do not need to die that terrible death of separation from the Father, though its up to us to choose. If anyone dies the second death it will be because they have chosen it. We must choose the gift Christ gives us.
 
He is.

Nope.

Nope. He's pissed.

Nope. He and the Father are one.

Nope.

What isn't eternal? His suffering? No, it is not. But He did suffer throughout His life culminating on the cross. It wasn't eternal, it was intensive. Eternal separation in three hours time.
Go figure.
Go back and re-read post 132. The answers you provided contradict your own posts. Either the questions I asked were not correctly understood, or the answers are not yet recognized for their inconsistency. Give it another look. For example, the term "eternity," is timeless, unending, but you posted, "Christ's suffering was not extensive," as part of the argument defending Christ's eternal suffering. If the suffering was not temporally extensive, then it is not eternal. The entire argument falls apart because of that contradiction.

There are several of these inconsistencies.

So give your last three or four posts a re-read and -re-read my questions. Change your answers wherever you like. If none of the answers change, I'll address them relevant to what has been argued.
 
Go back and re-read post 132. The answers you provided contradict your own posts. Either the questions I asked were not correctly understood, or the answers are not yet recognized for their inconsistency. Give it another look. For example, the term "eternity," is timeless, unending, but you posted, "Christ's suffering was not extensive," as part of the argument defending Christ's eternal suffering. If the suffering was not temporally extensive, then it is not eternal. The entire argument falls apart because of that contradiction.
Christ didn't have to experience the same suffering we go through.
He was a man of sorrows and acquainted with grief.
The Heidelberg Catechism correctly says that "all the time he lived on earth, but especially at the end of His life, He bore, in body and soul, the wrath of God against the sin of the whole human race." These sufferings were followed by His death on the cross. But this was not all. He was subject to not only physical, but eternal death, though He bore this intensively and not extensively, when He agonized in the garden and when He cried out on the cross, "My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me?" In a short period of time, He bore the infinite wrath against sin to the very end and came out victoriously. This was possible for Him only because of His exalted nature. Yet there was no despair, for even in the darkest hour He directs His prayer to God.
There are several of these inconsistencies.
So give your last three or four posts a re-read and -re-read my questions. Change your answers wherever you like. If none of the answers change, I'll address them relevant to what has been argued.
Address them.
 
What Jesus suffered is what those with unrepented sin will suffer, separation from God, and yet Christ was sinless. When He was on the cross, He cried out, "My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me?" He felt separated from God. He experienced the torment that the wicked will experience. The wages of sin is eternal death. Christ died the equivalent of that death. He drank the cup to it’s bitter dregs, so that we will not have to drink it. Christ died the equivalent of the second death for us. We do not need to die that terrible death of separation from the Father, though its up to us to choose. If anyone dies the second death it will be because they have chosen it. We must choose the gift Christ gives us.
"Christ committed no sin" is not the same thing as to call him 'sinless' while he bore our sins. It even says, "he became sin for us". I would not say he was sinless at the point where the Father apparently 'forsook' his Son, or, as I like to say, 'turned his back on him'. I believe he WAS separated from his Father. That does not translate to 'he ceased to be God' at any point, nor even that the Godhead ceased to be a Trinity at any time.
 
I understand Jesus' 'torment' of separation from God to be intensive not extensive.
 
Back
Top