Scripture interpreted in the light of and in agreement with all Scripture interprets itself.If “scripture is the only authority “ then there can be no authority to interpret the scripture and give authentic meaning!
Scripture interpreted in the light of and in agreement with all Scripture interprets itself.If “scripture is the only authority “ then there can be no authority to interpret the scripture and give authentic meaning!
It can do some of that, but... eh...Scripture interpreted in the light of and in agreement with all Scripture interprets itself.
"A fat sandwich man" means the man is fat.“A fat sandwich man”
Does that mean a fat man who makes sandwiches? Or a man who makes fat sandwiches?
I think you don't know what interpret means. Matt 28:19-20 Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you. And behold, I am with you always, to the end of the age.If “scripture interprets scripture”?
Then where does it say what are the
commandments referred to in Matt 28:20 and acts 1:2
I was thinking in terms of divine revelation of doctrine, which history and archaeology do not affect.It can do some of that, but... eh...
You still need grammar and history. And maybe archaeology.
They are contained in the NT writings.If “scripture interprets scripture”?
Then where does it say what are the
commandments referred to in Matt 28:20 and acts 1:2
Mystery means secret, never before revealed, it does not mean beyond understanding; e.g.,What are the mysteries referred to in matt 13:11 and Lk 8:10 and 1 cor 4:1 and 1 cor 13:2 and 1 cor 14:2
The fact that the answer to those questions is not known is evidence of a problem to be solved and a woefully inadequate understanding of scripture that precludes a person from having any ability (or authority) to tell other what and how to believe. The great ironies is that post is scripture answers those questions! They shouldn't need to be asked by a person who has read the Bible!If “scripture interprets scripture”?
Then where does it say what are the commandments referred to in Matt 28:20 and acts 1:2 What are the mysteries referred to in matt 13:11 and Lk 8:10 and 1 cor 4:1 and 1 cor 13:2 and 1 cor 14:2
They don't affect it by changing those revelations, but God tells us to bring history and archaeology to mind when considering the scriptures. Otherwise, how can we obey the directives found in Psalms 46:8, Psalms 9:16, and Psalms 66:5?I was thinking in terms of divine revelation of doctrine, which history and archaeology do not affect.
I see no doctrine there that is not in the NT, which is my point.They don't affect it by changing those revelations, but God tells us to bring history and archaeology to mind when considering the scriptures. Otherwise, how can we obey the directives found in Psalms 46:8, Psalms 9:16, and Psalms 66:5?
Matt 13:11 And He answered them (the disciples) "To you it has been given to know the secrets of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it has not been given.What are the mysteries referred to in matt 13:11 and Lk 8:10 and 1 cor 4:1 and 1 cor 13:2 and 1 cor 14:2
The strawman is anotherJames 2:10 is by far the most common verses that has presented to me alone out context.
In Ephesians 2:8-10, we are new creations in Christ to do good works, so while Paul denied that we become saved as the result of our works lest anyone should boast, doing good works is nevertheless intrinsically part of our salvation from not doing good works.
That's a tad bit biased. For example, when Jesus said that this is my body, it's not about context, but about whether we think that he was speaking literally or figuratively.
There are 10 Commandments (Exodus 34:28, Deuteronomy 4:13), though there are different ways that different groups have numbered them. "I am the Lord your God" is the 1st Commandment that parallels the same principle as the 6th Commandment.
Indeed, when Jesus said that, he was speaking about a concept of which his audience was aware. There has never been another person whose teachings were more thoroughly rooted in the OT.
Indeed.
Murdering someone expresses the sentiment that this person has no intrinsic value as an individual beyond what they can give me and that I would be better off if someone did not exist. This principle parallels the 1st Commandment "I am the Lord your God" because while we can't murder God, we can fail to recognize Him as an individual that we can know who has intrinsic value and act like we would be better off if He didn't exists. Likewise, the 2nd Commandment against idolatry is to our relationship with God what the 7th Commandment against adultery is to our relationship with our neighbor, so there is evidence for how the Ten Commandments should be numbered bases on their parallel structure.The strawman is another
I know there are 10 commandments but why do fundamentalists insist on breaking up the first into the first two?
Thanks
Ok then scripture really is for you the only authority so it needs to communicate what is and what is not scripture, and where scripture interprets scripture or where it refers to a prior scripture like acts 2:38-39 refers to a prior scripture but does not say which one?If the scripture is its own authority then it needs no other authority to interpret the scripture in order to give it authentic meaning. When God says something He says what He means and He means what He says. People may arrive at many different interpretations but that does not mean that there are many. People are fallible. God and His word are not.
That is where context comes in. You are defeating your own purpose. Let's take an example from scripture. One you used in another forum to show that the Catholic priesthood was valid.
Luke 22:29 "and I assign to you, as my Father assigned to me, a kingdom"
That of course is the middle of a sentence. Here is the whole sentence which begins in verse 28 and ends in verse 30:
"You are those who have stayed with me in my trials, and I assign to you, as my Father assigned to me, a kingdom, that you may eat and drink at my table in my kingdom and sit on thrones judging the twelve tribes of Israel."
It says nothing about priests, but rather a kingdom. And Jesus was talking to the the disciples who had been with Him and stayed with Him through all His trials from the beginning. No one else.
Hijinked and hoodwinked.
Do you realize how full of oxymorons that sentence is? Everything in the scriptures is scripture, that is why it is called the scriptures. Acts 3:38-39 does not refer to a prior scripture. Many places do and a Bible that contains the cross references in its margin will show you exactly where to go. The NT is a further revealing of what was in the OT that was only shadowed and prophesied, and the scriptures the people of the apostles day had were the Law and the prophets (the OT). That is why it is so frequently quoted and referenced by Jesus and the apostles. To show the authenticity of what they taught and also the authenticity of the scriptures themselves. Consistent, unbroken. Peter's audience was primarily Jewish and would have been very familiar with the OT and exactly what he was saying.Ok then scripture really is for you the only authority so it needs to communicate what is and what is not scripture, and where scripture interprets scripture or where it refers to a prior scripture like acts 2:38-39 refers to a prior scripture but does not say which one?
It is context that aids in interpretation.Those examples are about interpretation not context.
Believers are called priests in that they all worship before the Lord and come into His presence through the one mediator. But there is distinction between priest in our relationship with God and the office of priest. The office of Priest was done away with when Jesus ascended to that position as the only mediator between a holy God and sinful man.The priests administer the kingdom just as they did before
You don’t believe anyone in the new covenant is a priest?
Really?Scripture interpreted in the light of and in agreement with all Scripture interprets itself.
The apostles know, traditionThe fact that the answer to those questions is not known is evidence of a problem to be solved and a woefully inadequate understanding of scripture that precludes a person from having any ability (or authority) to tell other what and how to believe. The great ironies is that post is scripture answers those questions! They shouldn't need to be asked by a person who has read the Bible!