David1701
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You know why not. You removed the "why not" part of my post when you quoted it!No, according to Mark 16:8.
Why not?
Here it is again, since you deleted it "accidentally".
The manuscript evidence is that 98.5% of extant Greek manuscripts that contain the ending of Mark, have verses 9-20 (with slight variations) - many hundreds of them. Of the rest, precisely three manuscripts end at verse 8. One of the three is not regarded as important by anyone; the other two disagree with each other over 3,000 times, in the gospels alone, and are riddled with copyists errors.
Here is the footnote re. this, from the NKJV, "Vv. 9-20 are bracketed in NU as not in the original text. They are lacking in Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus, although nearly all other mss. of Mark contain them.".
Here is the footnote from the World English Bible, "NU includes the text of verses 9-20, but mentions in a footnote that a few manuscripts omitted it. The translators of the World English Bible regard Mark 16:9-20 as reliable based on an overwhelming majority of textual evidence, including not only the authoritative Greek Majority Text New Testament, but also the TR and many of the manuscripts cited in the NU text.".