Josheb
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Read Post 18Zechariah 14.....
Read Post 18Zechariah 14.....
And you're getting further and further off topic because the eternal truth of God's word has absolutely nothing to do with preterism.
I am sorry, but I came from forums where the OP had the prerogative to change topics. If a person didn't like it, they could move on. To continue to yammer about being off topic is 'off topic' in and of itself. Being off-topic seems to be a pet-peeve of yours as I notice you bring it up often.How about not doing that? How about you and I return to the specified topic of Romans 11:26 and you respond to the fact Paul explicitly stated the remnant was preserved at that present time? How about addressing the fact there's not a single word in the three-chapter narrative that specifically mentions anything two millennia later? How about you not change the subject?
Irrelevant. It's not okay to ask a question and then ignore the answers. That is the antithesis of discussion. Regardless of what other forums permit, this particular forum's rules explicitly state,I am sorry, but I came from forums where the OP had the prerogative to change topics.
.....is something you should stop doing and get back to discussing Romans 11:26. I'll even help by providing additional responses to the op in the next postTo continue to yammer....
Do you mean, "I'm assuming all partial-preterists believe all prophecies except Christ's 2nd Coming have been fulfilled?" If so, that two is incorrect.I'm assuming preterists believe all prophecies have been fulfilled by 70AD (except perhaps full preterists—Christ's 2nd Coming).
That depends on what you mean asking that question. From God's position in eternity everyone who will ever be saved is already saved. From within creation's timeline people continue to get saved from sin and wrath every day so, no, all Israel has nt been saved but the correct answer to that question also depends on having a correct definition of "Israel," because Paul explicitly states all Israel is not Israel. Logically speaking, we would not expect the Israel that is not Israel to be saved. We might, therefore, answer the question asked, "Has all Israel been saved?" by saying, "Yes, all the Israel that is Israel, including the remnant that God had preserved in the first century when Paul wrote the Romans epistle has been saved BUT that does not mean all of Israel living in this century have been saved. Furthermore, None of the Israel that is not Israel who are living in this century will be saved any more than the non-Israel Israel of any century were saved.Romans 11:26 KJV
And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
Has all Israel been saved?
You'll have to ask a full-preterist.For the Full Preterist...has the Deliverer come out of Sion
Yes, of course. It happened during the present time when Paul wrote that epistle, but that has nothing to do with preterism. Paul answers that question just a few verses later.for both, has ungodliness been turned from Jacob?
Right about the rules but you are assuming I ignore the answers..Irrelevant. It's not okay to ask a question and then ignore the answers.
Personally, I see that as a non-answer. How can their sins be taken away while they were rejecting Jesus Christ? Or did the 'elect Jews come to faith in 70AD?Yes, of course. It happened during the present time when Paul wrote that epistle, but that has nothing to do with preterism. Paul answers that question just a few verses later.
Romans 11:28-32
This is My covenant with them when I take away their sins. From the standpoint of the gospel, they are enemies for your sake, but from the standpoint of God's choice they are beloved for the sake of the fathers; for the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable. For just as you once were disobedient to God, but now have been shown mercy because of their disobedience, so these also now have been disobedient, that because of the mercy shown to you they also may now be shown mercy. For God has shut up all in disobedience so that He may show mercy to all.
Right about the rules but you are assuming I ignore the answers..
If disbedience has been stopped, as the text stipulates, then unrighteousness has been turned. The problem with the question is that it removes a portion of one verse from its surrounding text, ignoring how the text itself answers that question.To my question "has ungodliness been turned from Jacob?"
you replied...
Personally, I see that as a non-answer. How can their sins be taken away while they were rejecting Jesus Christ? Or did the 'elect Jews come to faith in 70AD?
Romans 11:30-32 KJV
For as ye in times past have not believed God, yet have now obtained mercy through their unbelief: [31] Even so have these also now not believed, that through your mercy they also may obtain mercy. [32] For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.
It has everything to do with preterism and verb tenses.
Romans 11:26 KJVLet me know when you're reading to discuss Romans 11:26 and address the points I have broached, beginning with the fact the text explicitly states the remnant God had preserved was one preserved at the present time, not the far distant future.
I'm assuming preterists believe all prophecies have been fulfilled by 70AD (except perhaps full preterists—Christ's 2nd Coming).
Romans 11:26 KJV
And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
Has all Israel been saved?
For the Full Preterist...has the Deliverer come out of Sion
for both, has ungodliness been turned from Jacob?
Romans 11:26 KJV
And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
Taken with a bit of context...
Romans 11:32 KJV
For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.
Looking at verse 32 it seems that Paul is referring to those unbelieving Jews at that time, but God will in the future have mercy them. Verse 26 indicates there is a future time when Jews who are then rejecting Christ will come to faith when the deliver comes out of Zion.
Was there a revival amongst the Jews in 70 A.D.? Or did they continue to earn the moniker of Christ killers?
Yes, God would have mercy on all the Israel that is Israel (but not the Israel that is not Israel)...... and all of it was couched in the present time, not the far, far distant future thousands of years later.Romans 11:26 KJV
And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
Taken with a bit of context...
Romans 11:32 KJV
For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.
How about we look at the entire three-chapter narrative as a whole and not select individual verses and remove them from their entirety?Looking at verse 32....
Are you sure?it seems that Paul is referring to those unbelieving Jews at that time,
No, it does not indicate any such thing. The only the only future even remotely alluded to is Paul's future, his original readers' future - not ours. Do a word search for the word "future," and tell me how many times you find that word mentioned in those three chapters.but God will in the future have mercy them. Verse 26 indicates there is a future time when Jews who are then rejecting Christ will come to faith when the deliver comes out of Zion.
There was a revival of Jews from the day Jesus resurrected all through the decades leading up to the Jewish War and the gospel continued to spread all over the world converting both Jew and Gentile alike, regardless of their prior religious affiliation because there are no Jews or Gentiles in Christ.Was there a revival amongst the Jews in 70 A.D.? Or did they continue to earn the moniker of Christ killers?
Where do you find 70 AD mentioned in Romans 9-11?Was there a revival amongst the Jews in 70 A.D.? Or did they continue to earn the moniker of Christ killers?
Let me try addressing this post from another direction. Verse 26 states the deliverer will come out of Zion and put an end to ungodliness. The deliver had already come when by the time Paul wrote this epistle. Paul's point quoting Isaiah is to inform his readers that prophecy has been fulfilled. Here's what Isaiah said,Romans 11:26 KJV
And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
Taken with a bit of context...
Romans 11:32 KJV
For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.
Looking at verse 32 it seems that Paul is referring to those unbelieving Jews at that time, but God will in the future have mercy them. Verse 26 indicates there is a future time when Jews who are then rejecting Christ will come to faith when the deliver comes out of Zion.
Was there a revival amongst the Jews in 70 A.D.? Or did they continue to earn the moniker of Christ killers?
Yes, but that is Paul's future, not ours. At that present time God had reserved a remnant. God had kept Jews from worshiping Baal (and, by implication, any other idol). He'd preserved them. They were His remnant. They were preserved by grace, by God's choice and not by their works. Paul continues on to say those God had chosen obtained what Israel was looking for. The rest? God hardened their hearts. He gave them "a spirit of stupor" and it endured even to the day Paul's readers first read the Roman epistle. In other words, Paul is tying the unbelieving Jews of his day all the way back to Isaiah 6:9..... exactly as Jesus did in all four gospels!Looking at verse 32 it seems that Paul is referring to those unbelieving Jews at that time, but God will in the future have mercy them.
Yes, and that future is Paul and his original readers' future, not thousands of years later.Verse 26 indicates there is a future time when Jews who are then rejecting Christ will come to faith when the deliver comes out of Zion.
Irrelevant. That question begs a post hoc answer, and sound exegesis does not practice post hoc fallacy. Just stick to the text. The deliverance of Jacob, their turning away from unrighteousness is predicated up the deliverer coming from Zion (not heaven), their turning away from transgression (which is done by God, not the sinner's Law-abiding flesh), the remnant God had already preserved in the first century before Paul wrote to the saints, in Rome and Paul concludes with,Was there a revival amongst the Jews in 70 A.D.? Or did they continue to earn the moniker of Christ killers?
In context of romans 11Not all Israel is Israel.
Does Israel mean Israel in name or true Israel?
We can look at israel todayMy point was..."There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:"
Has the Redeemer come out of Zion, turning away ungodliness from Jacob"?
Jacob is the 12 tribes of Isreal.It wasn’t spiritualized.
If we literalize it … Jacob died a thousand years before Christ was born (too late for him to turn).
But Paul said all Israel will be saved when the time of the gentile is complete. So all is not all?Therefore, “Jacob” is probably the nation. Reading the gospels, the nation turned to Jesus (and back towards God) in droves. Masses went to John the Baptist and thousands added at Pentecost … how many before you will accept that the nation (Jacob) was delivered?
If you are expecting 100% to be saved, you have misunderstood the wide and narrow roads.
Jesus cried or wept over unbelieving IsraelYes, Deut 29:15- came to pass, but as Rom 11:11b indicates her fall was temporary. (παραρρέω 2aor. pass. subjunctive παραρυῶ; ( slip from, off, away; metaphorically in the NT of being like a ship drifting without anchorage drift away from, gradually neglect (HE 2.1). (Analytical Lexicon of the Greek New Testament)
Romans 11:11 KJV
I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.
I doubt God laughed at their calamity, in light of...
Ezekiel 33:11 KJV
Say unto them, As I live, saith the Lord GOD, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but that the wicked turn from his way and live: turn ye, turn ye from your evil ways; for why will ye die, O house of Israel?
Apparently, that is still to come, or are you trying to say the church is Jacob? If that was the case, why is Paul comparing the unbelieving Jews with the Gentiles in Romans 11?
Israel has received "a blinding in part". . ."part" is part of Israel, not a part blinding. . .the blinding is total, a spirit of stupor, withIn context of romans 11
Isreal consist of the remnant jews and the jews who are blinded in art
Your right.Israel has received "a blinding in part". . ."part" is part of Israel, not a part blinding. . .the blinding is total, a spirit of stupor, with
eyes so that they could not see and ears so that they could not hear (Ro 11:8).
Only believing true Israel is saved, the blinded in part are not true Israel.
"And thus/so (Gr: houtos--"in that manner")---previously presented in Ro 11:5, though a remnant, all (true) Israel will be saved (Ro 11:26).Your right.
On that Day All israel will be saved. They all will repent and be saved.
25 For I do not desire, brethren, that you should be ignorant of this mystery, lest you should be wise in your own opinion, that blindness in part has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in. 26. ;And so all Israel will be saved, as it is written:All true Israel will be saved. . .not all Israel is Israel.