Regarding your insult that I'm "changing Scripture":
I didn't say you were changing Scripture. I said "we" including myself (as in a general "we" believers) would be changing the clear meaning of Scripture if we did that. I'm not attacking or disparaging you. From my perspective, we're just having a conversation.
My view - they are different rivers, named after the originals
1. And why, if that is true, would God not make that expressly clear instead of letting Jews and Christians "falsely" believe for thousands of years what Scripture clearly seemed to say?
2. Since in Post-Flood times (up to today) there were two *very* prominent, Fertile Crescent defining rivers in Mesopotamia called the Tigris and Euphrates, and they would easily mistake these rivers for what was being referred to, then why did God not make it expressly clear that He was referring to two entirely different rivers by the same name?
3. Since in Post-Flood times there actually was an ancient city Ashur that a prominent well known river named the Tigris did flow East of, why would God say the Pre-Flood Tigris River flowed east of Ashur without clarifying that He was speaking of a completely different river and city that just so happened to have the same names and geographic relationship to each other, knowing how easily this would be confused, and knowing that they would naturally think the Tigris and Ashur they knew was being referred to?
4. Same questions for the Euphrates River?
5. Why would God identify the second river in relation to "the whole land of Cush," which in ancient times was identified with the son of Ham and area of Ethiopia without clarifying He was referring to a different land of Cush (not recorded in the Bible), knowing they would naturally assume God was referring to the land of Cush that they knew and associated with the son of Ham?
6. Why would God identify the first river in relation to the "whole land of Havilah, where there is gold," which was identified with Havilah the son of Cush, the son of Ham (Gen 10.7), whose land was identified with the area of Arabia (Gen 10.29, Gen 25.18, 1 Sam 15.7, 1 Chron 1.9, 23)---and Arabia was certainly known for its gold in ancient times---without clarifying that He just so happened to be referring to a Havilah land with gold by the same name (not recorded in Scripture), knowing that they would naturally assume God was referring to the land of Havilah that they knew in their time?
The "mystery" I'm faced with has been the same mystery for a thousand years that other people have tried to figure out the garden of Eden's location, too (it's hardly a new mystery; it's not like "my view" is leaving something new unsolved that hasn't already been a mystery for millennia; nor is it fair play to require me to solve what you know others haven't; and isn’t it better to acknowledge we don’t know than to dogmatically assert we have it all figured out?).
but interpreting it, in the light of the evidence
And what evidence would that be? There are biblical as well as *scientific* reasons to question the modern YEC assumption that the fossil record is due to Noah's Flood. Like, for example, the fact that we find slow growing stromatolites and reefs globally distributed throughout the fossil record with the most massive enormous reefs in the middle to upper fossil record and the small at the bottom in contradiction and reverse order of what hydrological sorting and ecological zonation predicts.
You, on the other hand, are also interpreting it,
Not really, I'm simply reading what it says.
*Do you deny that Gen 2.14 says "The name of the third river is the Tigris; it runs along the east side of Ashur. And the fourth river is the Euphrates."?
*Do you deny that in ancient Bible times the most natural understanding of Gen 2.14 would be that it was referring to the well known Tigris and Euphrates Rivers of Mesopotamia and the well-known ancient Assyrian capital city of Ashur?
*Do you at least acknowledge that this at least seems to be the most straightforward understanding of Gen 2.14?