What happened to “glory to God alone”?Rom 8:30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.
What happened to “glory to God alone”?Rom 8:30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.
Matt 23:1 Then Jesus said to the crowds and to his disciples:Matt 23:1
Yes. But that does not validate what you said.Matt 21:43
The keys to the kingdom are a metaphor specifying how the apostles are foundational to the church. (His church not the RCC). They have been given binding a losing powers which lock and unlock doors. They open the kingdom to those who share Peter's confession and exclude those who will not receive the testimony of Christ. The apostolic foundation of the church (His church not the RCC) laid by the apostles is in the scriptures which are now the keys of Christ's authority in the church.Matt 16:18-19
The authority of the apostles ended when they did. They accomplished the purpose for which they were sent. The foundation is laid. The foundation is the doctrine taught by the apostles. No new foundation is being laid. Christ is the head of His church (not the RCC).I don’t see the authority of the apostles ending Matt 28:19 acts 1:8 With the same authority as Christ Jn 20:21-23
People are free to divide up God's law into any number of parts or categories that they want and decide for themselves which laws they think best fits into those categories, but that does not establish that any of the authors of the Bible categorized God's laws in the same manner. The Bible does not list which laws are moral, jurisdictional, or ceremonial, and doesn't even refer to those as being categories of law, so if a group of people were asked to create lists of which of God's laws they think are moral, jurisdictional, or ceremonial, then they would create a wide variety of lists and none of those people should interpret the authors of the Bible as referring to a list of law that they just created.Their were three parts of the law
Moral law is eternal the Ten Commandments
The jurisdictional law authority
Taken from Israel and given to the apostolic church
The ceremonial law which is fulfilled done away with
Colossians 2:14
Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
Thanks
All glory goes to God for predestinating us, calling us, justifying, glorifying and most important sacrificing His Life for us and for our salvation.What happened to “glory to God alone”?
Matt 23:1 Then Jesus said to the crowds and to his disciples:
But let's presume you meant to include:"The teachers of the law and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat. So you must be careful to do everything they tell you.
That does not mean they had "jurisdictional law authority". They gave it to themselves as legalistic authoritarian judgmental judges. They were under God's law.
The apostles continue till Christ returns in gloryYes. But that does not validate what you said.
The keys to the kingdom are a metaphor specifying how the apostles are foundational to the church. (His church not the RCC). They have been given binding a losing powers which lock and unlock doors. They open the kingdom to those who share Peter's confession and exclude those who will not receive the testimony of Christ. The apostolic foundation of the church (His church not the RCC) laid by the apostles is in the scriptures which are now the keys of Christ's authority in the church.
The authority of the apostles ended when they did. They accomplished the purpose for which they were sent. The foundation is laid. The foundation is the doctrine taught by the apostles. No new foundation is being laid. Christ is the head of His church (not the RCC).
Christians are forbidden to practice the mosaic covenant feasts, fasts, Passover etc. we have a new covenantPeople are free to divide up God's law into any number of parts or categories that they want and decide for themselves which laws they think best fits into those categories, but that does not establish that any of the authors of the Bible categorized God's laws in the same manner. The Bible does not list which laws are moral, jurisdictional, or ceremonial, and doesn't even refer to those as being categories of law, so if a group of people were asked to create lists of which of God's laws they think are moral, jurisdictional, or ceremonial, then they would create a wide variety of lists and none of those people should interpret the authors of the Bible as referring to a list of law that they just created.
For example, some people might consider the Ten Commandments to be the moral law while others might include the greatest two commandments as being moral laws or the laws likes the ones against rape or kidnapping. Some debate whether the 4th Commandments is a moral or ceremonial law or whether laws in regard to marriage are moral, jurisdictional, or ceremonial, but they are free to have their opinions because the Bible doesn't state that any of its laws belong in any of those categories.
I could choose to categorize God's laws based upon which part of the body is most commonly used to obey/disobey them, such as with the law against theft being a hand law, but if I were to try to insert the category of law that I had just created back into the Bible, such as by interpreting Colossians 2:14 as referring to hand laws being done away with, then I would be making the same sort of error that you are making.
The existence of the category of moral law implies that we can be acting morally while living in disobedience to the laws that aren't in that category, however, there are no examples in the Bible of disobedience to any of God's laws being considered to be moral. Rather, morality is in regard to what we ought to do and we ought to obey God, so all of God's laws are inherently moral laws. Every legislator gives laws according to what they think ought to be done and no one knows better than God what ought to be done. For someone to claim that some of God's laws are not moral laws is to claim that God made a moral error about what ought to be done when he gave those laws, which would also be claiming to have greater moral knowledge than God.
In regard to Colossians 2:14. God's law was given for our own good (Deuteronomy 6:24, 10:12-13), so it is not against us, but rather the ordinances that were against us were the list of sins that we have committed, which were nailed to Christ's cross so that he died in our place to pay the penalty for our sins, so that verse has nothing to do with doing away with any of God's laws, especially because they are all eternal (Psalms 119:160).
Why does it say He glorifies us! Shares His glory with His saints?All glory goes to God for predestinating us, calling us, justifying, glorifying and most important sacrificing His Life for us and for our salvation.
Christ set a sinless example for us to follow of how to walk in obedience to the Mosaic Law, including keeping God's feasts, and we are told to follow his example (1 Peter 2:21-22) and that those who are in Christ are obligated to walk in the same way he walked (1 John 2:6), so why does it make sense to you to think that followers of Christ are forbidden to follow Christ? In 1 Corinthians 5:6-8, Paul said that we should continue to observe Passover, which is the opposite of forbidding it. In Jeremiah 31:33, the New Covenant involves God putting the Mosaic Law in our minds and writing it on our hearts.Christians are forbidden to practice the mosaic covenant feasts, fasts, Passover etc. we have a new covenant
I have been speaking about the way that we should live under the New Covenant. The Mosaic Law is God's word and it is contradictory to have salvation through faith God's word made flesh, but not through faith in God's word.There is no mosaic covenant anymore, there is only one mediator Jesus Christ of the new covenant!
No salvation in any other!
It? Where do I find 'it'?Why does it say He glorifies us! Shares His glory with His saints?
The old covenant practices pointed to the coming of the messiah Jesus Christ! To continue them would be to declare: “Christ has not come in the flesh”!Christ set a sinless example for us to follow of how to walk in obedience to the Mosaic Law, including keeping God's feasts, and we are told to follow his example (1 Peter 2:21-22) and that those who are in Christ are obligated to walk in the same way he walked (1 John 2:6), so why does it make sense to you to think that followers of Christ are forbidden to follow Christ? In 1 Corinthians 5:6-8, Paul said that we should continue to observe Passover, which is the opposite of forbidding it. In Jeremiah 31:33, the New Covenant involves God putting the Mosaic Law in our minds and writing it on our hearts.
I have been speaking about the way that we should live under the New Covenant. The Mosaic Law is God's word and it is contradictory to have salvation through faith God's word made flesh, but not through faith in God's word.
Scripture!It? Where do I find 'it'?
That still doesn't explain why you think it makes sense to interpret the Bible as speaking against following Christ. The Mosaic Law teaches us how to point to Christ and as his followers we should live in a way that points to him by following his example of obedience to it rather than a way that points away from him. In Deuteronomy 4:2, it is a sin to add to or subtract from the Mosaic Law, so Jesus did not do that. In Titus 2:14 Jesus gave himself to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own possession who are zealous for doing good works, so becoming zealous for doing good works in obedience to the Mosaic Law is the way to believe in what Jesus finished on the cross (Acts 21:20). In 2 Thessalonians 2:3, the antichrist is described as the man of lawlessness, which by contrast means that Christ is the man of lawfulness, so we can choose which one we want to follow.The old covenant practices pointed to the coming of the messiah Jesus Christ! To continue them would be to declare: “Christ has not come in the flesh”!
1 John 4:3
And every spirit that confesseth notthat Jesus Christ is come in the fleshis not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.
Christ the high priest changed the old covenant Passover not the new covenant Passover or or sacrifice of Christ, Jn 1:29 Jesus high priest wearing the seamless garment and pronounced the words that the high are required to say to consummate the Passover sacrifice “it is finished “!
Thanks
Romans 7:6That still doesn't explain why you think it makes sense to interpret the Bible as speaking against following Christ. The Mosaic Law teaches us how to point to Christ and as his followers we should live in a way that points to him by following his example of obedience to it rather than a way that points away from him. In Deuteronomy 4:2, it is a sin to add to or subtract from the Mosaic Law, so Jesus did not do that. In Titus 2:14 Jesus gave himself to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own possession who are zealous for doing good works, so becoming zealous for doing good works in obedience to the Mosaic Law is the way to believe in what Jesus finished on the cross (Acts 21:20). In 2 Thessalonians 2:3, the antichrist is described as the man of lawlessness, which by contrast means that Christ is the man of lawfulness, so we can choose which one we want to follow.
Isaiah 42:8 ESVScripture!
rom 8:30
Eph 1:8
Eph 3:16
Col 1:27
2 thes 1:10
2 thes 1:12
2 thes 2:14
1 pet 1:7
1 pet 4:14
1 pet 5:1
1 pet 5:4
1 pet 5:10
Jn 17:22 22 And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:
Now if one sola be false they all be false! Amen!
To no other “god”!Isaiah 42:8 ESV
I am the LORD; that is my name; my glory I give to no other, nor my praise to carved idols.
Isaiah 48:11 ESV
For my own sake, for my own sake, I do it, for how should my name be profaned? My glory I will not give to another.
God's glory is an incommunicable attribute of God. You are referring to the communicable aspect of His glory.
When we say 'sola Gloria's we are saying 'to God alone be the glory'...not man.
To which man would you like to give glory?
The law did that. The law was the jurisdiction authority. The law was given by God to Moses. Moses is only a second cause and he has no jurisdiction authority.The seat of Moses represented the jurisdiction authority
What is "them"?The keys of the kingdom (open & shut) and the power to bind and loose and Christ “commanding obedience to them!
The apostles are all dead. The apostles had to meet certain criteria in order to lay the foundation of the church and carry apostolic authority as representatives of Christ. I suspect you do not know what "lay the foundation" means.The apostles continue till Christ returns in glory
Matt 28:19-20 acts 1:8 acts 1:15-26
No one has the power to bind the conscious of men whatever that is, but let's assume you mean conscience. And only God has the power to forgive sins for it is Him who is ultimately sinned against. And it is not about binding anyone to believe what is being taught, though the RCC does a good facsimile of doing so.Bind and loose
To bind the conscious of men to believe what they teach and to forgive sins
To which man would you like to give glory?To no other “god”!
In Romans 7:22-23, Paul said that he delighted in obeying the Law of God, but contrasted that with the law of sin that held him captive. In Romans 7:6, it speaks about being released from a law that held us captive, so he was speaking about being released from the law of sin, not the Law of God. It would be absurd to interpret that as referring to the Law of God as if Paul delighted in being held captive or as if he wanted to be released from a law that he delighted in obeying.Romans 7:6
But now we are delivered from thelaw, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of theletter.
Matt 28:19-20 “I am with you until the end of the world”The law did that. The law was the jurisdiction authority. The law was given by God to Moses. Moses is only a second cause and he has no jurisdiction authority.
What is "them"?
The apostles are all dead. The apostles had to meet certain criteria in order to lay the foundation of the church and carry apostolic authority as representatives of Christ. I suspect you do not know what "lay the foundation" means.
Acts 1:21-22 So one of the men who have accompanied us during all the time that the Lord Jesus went in and out among us, beginning from the baptism of John until the day when He was taken up from us---one of these men must become with us a witness to His resurrection.
An apostle had to be appointed by Jesus. Acts 1:24-25 And they prayed and said, "You, Lord, who know the hearts of all, show which one of these two you have chosen to take the place in this ministry and apostleship from which Judas turned aside to go to his own place.
In the case of Paul, he was not with Jesus during His earthly life but he witnessed the risen Christ on the road to Damascus and was appointed by Jesus as the apostle to the Gentiles.
Matt 28:19-20 What the apostles were sent to do was teach what we have in our NT. That was the foundation they laid. By extension we are to teach the same thing but that does not make us apostles. We are spreading the news in the foundation that was laid by them.
Acts 1:8 applies to the eleven He was talking to. The apostles, and later Paul. By extension, the same power to bear witness to the gospel is given to all believers, but we only preach and teach what the apostles gave to us. It does not make us apostles. Nothing is being added to the foundation.
Acts 1:15-26 I just gave those same scriptures to show that no one since the death of the apostles meets the qualifications of apostle. Did you skip over that part when you used these same scriptures to prove that there are apostles today? Did it not register with you what was being said?
No one has the power to bind the conscious of men whatever that is, but let's assume you mean conscience. And only God has the power to forgive sins for it is Him who is ultimately sinned against. And it is not about binding anyone to believe what is being taught, though the RCC does a good facsimile of doing so.