Josheb
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I had a weird experience earlier this evening during an online discussion elsewhere. Someone reported he'd been told the Jews are not God's people, despite "from everything I've read it's pretty clear that they are His chosen people," and then he asked for everyone's thoughts.
I asked one question: Can you provide the people in this group with a verse that explicitly states, "The Jews are My people"?
To which he cited Deuteronomy 7:6.
Deuteronomy 7:6
For you are a holy people to the LORD your God; the LORD your God has chosen you to be a people for His own possession out of all the peoples who are on the face of the earth.
Which makes absolutely no mention of Jews. I noted that there were no Jews existing at the point Deuteronomy 7 occurred. Up to this point God had addressed all of his words to "the sons of Israel," or just plain "Israel." I then summarized how Israel was not yet a nation-state, and that no one was called "Jew" until long after the Hebrews had entered, cleared out, and settled the promised land. I also provided a little history pertaining to the fact that those people to whom Giod was speaking were descendants of Abraham, which made the Babylonians (Eber --> Ur --> Chaldea --> Babylon - I explain all that if necessary).
His response was to cite Romans 9-11, so I again pointed out there's no mentions of Jews in those three chapters, except for Paul's statement about there being no distinction between Jew and Greek in the Lord. I briefly described how the word "Israel" was used, but Paul stated not all Israel is Israel and he defined the descendants of Abraham and identity of Israel by way of God's promises and those who have faith in them, NOT bloodline or the Law.
The other guy then affirmed the fact there are no jews or Gentiles in Christ and "Yes, the Jews must be saved the same as us," but (and this is the weird part) he then stated,
This is self-evidently not true. Dt. 7:6 is not written to Jews, and it can't possibly be made to be said to the Jews because no Jews then existed. It is many years in scripture before the word "Jew" is used by God to describe anyone. It took nearly fifty years for the Israelites to rid the land of its inhabitants and a few more to settle the tribes into their respective lands.
My point of discussion pertains to two points. The first is "How can a person be asked for an explicit statement, not provide one but claim a verse says something it does not state?" Most of you are very familiar with the fact people make scripture say things it never states AND there is a fundamental difference between what is stated and what might be said about that statement's meaning AND what people say a verse says. Most of you are also familiar with my practice of asking for explicit statements for a variety of reason. The second point of discussion is "How, after acknowledging a verse does not state something a person can later go back to that verse contradict their prior agreement and again claim a verse says something it clearly does not state?" Usually, a person citing a verse they think says something will never concede what the verse states or acknowledge a difference between what is stated and what the verse is made to say. This guy acknowledged the verses did not explicitly state what he claimed they said and acknowledging that fact in Deuteronomy 7:6 he openly and willing vacated that verse to appeal to Romans 10-11...... only to return later to say Dt. 7:6 was "proof" of his position!
I see nonsense in DBs every day but that was just weird
.
Have at it
.
Anyway, I thought this might prompt an interesting set of conversations. It's going to be mostly speculation and anecdotal report because none can read that guy's mind, but we've all had similar experiences.
I asked one question: Can you provide the people in this group with a verse that explicitly states, "The Jews are My people"?
To which he cited Deuteronomy 7:6.
Deuteronomy 7:6
For you are a holy people to the LORD your God; the LORD your God has chosen you to be a people for His own possession out of all the peoples who are on the face of the earth.
Which makes absolutely no mention of Jews. I noted that there were no Jews existing at the point Deuteronomy 7 occurred. Up to this point God had addressed all of his words to "the sons of Israel," or just plain "Israel." I then summarized how Israel was not yet a nation-state, and that no one was called "Jew" until long after the Hebrews had entered, cleared out, and settled the promised land. I also provided a little history pertaining to the fact that those people to whom Giod was speaking were descendants of Abraham, which made the Babylonians (Eber --> Ur --> Chaldea --> Babylon - I explain all that if necessary).
His response was to cite Romans 9-11, so I again pointed out there's no mentions of Jews in those three chapters, except for Paul's statement about there being no distinction between Jew and Greek in the Lord. I briefly described how the word "Israel" was used, but Paul stated not all Israel is Israel and he defined the descendants of Abraham and identity of Israel by way of God's promises and those who have faith in them, NOT bloodline or the Law.
The other guy then affirmed the fact there are no jews or Gentiles in Christ and "Yes, the Jews must be saved the same as us," but (and this is the weird part) he then stated,
"These verses I have said are full proof. Deuteronomy 7:6 is plainly stated. It is talking to the Israelites which happen to be called Jews."
This is self-evidently not true. Dt. 7:6 is not written to Jews, and it can't possibly be made to be said to the Jews because no Jews then existed. It is many years in scripture before the word "Jew" is used by God to describe anyone. It took nearly fifty years for the Israelites to rid the land of its inhabitants and a few more to settle the tribes into their respective lands.
My point of discussion pertains to two points. The first is "How can a person be asked for an explicit statement, not provide one but claim a verse says something it does not state?" Most of you are very familiar with the fact people make scripture say things it never states AND there is a fundamental difference between what is stated and what might be said about that statement's meaning AND what people say a verse says. Most of you are also familiar with my practice of asking for explicit statements for a variety of reason. The second point of discussion is "How, after acknowledging a verse does not state something a person can later go back to that verse contradict their prior agreement and again claim a verse says something it clearly does not state?" Usually, a person citing a verse they think says something will never concede what the verse states or acknowledge a difference between what is stated and what the verse is made to say. This guy acknowledged the verses did not explicitly state what he claimed they said and acknowledging that fact in Deuteronomy 7:6 he openly and willing vacated that verse to appeal to Romans 10-11...... only to return later to say Dt. 7:6 was "proof" of his position!
I see nonsense in DBs every day but that was just weird

- How can a person be asked for an explicit statement, not provide one and then claim a verse says something it does not state?
- How, after acknowledging a verse does not state something, can a person later go back to that verse and contradict themselves and again claim a verse says something it clearly does not state?
Have at it

Anyway, I thought this might prompt an interesting set of conversations. It's going to be mostly speculation and anecdotal report because none can read that guy's mind, but we've all had similar experiences.