I'm not sure where you get that he was writing to his own people. Romans 11:13 "But I am speaking to you who are Gentiles. Inasmuch then as I am an apostle of Gentiles, I magnify my ministry, if somehow I might move to jealousy my fellow countrymen and save some of them." If you can't get this right, how can I expect you to get any of it right? It does require the future, because all Israel has not been saved yet. And yes, this is corporal. We already have the individual Jews being saved since Israel is only
partially blinded, not completely.
Actually "all Israel will be saved" is best understood not isolated the way you made it, but next to the rest of scripture and prophecy. Obviously, when you isolate an idea, passage, or quote mine, you can make it say whatever you want. Just leave out the rest of the important stuff. Remember what Paul said about Israel being called by God to be His chosen people. Romans 11:28-29 "From the standpoint of the gospel they are enemies for your sake, but from the standpoint of God's
choice they are beloved for the sake of the fathers; for the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable. Hence Paul explaining to the Gentiles he was writing to that God has not rejected Israel. God can't because the calling is irrevocable.
THE DELIVERE WILL COME FROM ZION, HE WILL REMOVE UNGODLINESS FROM JACOB. THIS IS MY COVENANT WITH THEM, WHEN I TAKE AWAY THEIR SINS. (capitalized because it is in my Bible.) Now, removing ungodliness from Jacob does not sound like justification, does it? God taking away their sins sounds like God is taking away their sins, right? You understand that that is connected to removing ungodliness from Jacob, correct? So it is transformative. Just as the 70 weeks prophecy in Daniel 9 is transformative. Once the 70 weeks are over, we have the result. Everlasting righteousness entering the land sounds pretty transformative to me.
Romans 11:20 (to answer with actual scripture): "For I do not want you, bretheren, to be uninformed of this mystery" [apparently still a mystery for some even with the explanation] "-- so that you will not be wise in your own estimation" [hmm...food for thought here...] that a partial hardening has happened to Israel
until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in;" It seems really clear here that the partial hardening that has happened is until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in. I mean, it is right there in the verse. UNTIL the fulness of the Gentiles has come in. I'm not sure how one can be
more clear then that. And you are the one who said that it's the original that is important.
until | ἄχρις
(achris) | 891: until, as far as | a prim. particle, preposition |
the fullness | πλήρωμα
(plērōma) | 4138: fullness, a filling up | from pléroó |
of the Gentiles | ἐθνῶν
(ethnōn) | 1484: a race, a nation, pl. the nations (as distinct from Isr.) | probably from a prim. root |
has come | εἰσέλθῃ
(eiselthē) | 1525: to go in (to), enter | from eis and erchomai |
in; | | | |
Even in the original language it is quite clear. If you allow the babysitter to watch TV until you are back, it is understood that that TV is turned off when you return, unless they ask if they can keep watching. You have to understand, unlike with us, everything i black and white with God. That babysitter is taking advantage of God if they keep watching TV after He has returned... and He won't have it. Why does everything come out with man on top of God? It is your interpretation that runs contrary to the clear, concise, inspired word of God, from God's mind to Paul's pen. Things have changed since we entered the post modern and post truth age. Things don't mean what they say anymore, because we get to choose what the truth is, which is what you did above.
Okay, the death of his daughter and sickness was in 1542. He fully supported the expulsion of the Jews from Saxony in 1536. It is possible he was antisemitic all his life, but was conciliatory in an effort to convert the Jews to Christendom. As they continued to reject his calls, he became more and more vocal in his antisemitism. In a scholarly essay I read, there was no mention of any Jewish doctor's, and the paper was solely about Martin Luther's views of Jews and Judaism throughout his life. If, what you said was correct, there should have been something... anything said about it. Alas, after an hour of searching (I have a google ranger badge), I couldn't anything anywhere. I did find that she died from the plague. (Yes... that plague.)