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Two Hermeneutics: Covenant and Dispensations

Covenant is an interpretive framework (thing the skeleton of a house being built) in CT, not a theology itself. In Scripture we see God dealing with mankind through covenant---a covenant relationship. The overarching covenant is the eternal CoR within the Godhead. What we see in Gen 3 forward on every page and in every word, is that CoR unfolding in history and how it will be consummated. And a covenant does not need to be announced as a covenant in order for it to be a covenant.

I have no idea what you mean by that last paragraph. It seems disjointed within itself.


The last paragraph meant that there was no elaboration in the text itself about the topic for 2000 years of historical time. When the term came up it was a one-party promise, undependent on the other.

Since I grew up putting a system on the Bible that turned out to be variously flawed, I won't do that again! History first, then theology if needed
 
Since I grew up putting a system on the Bible that turned out to be variously flawed, I won't do that again! History first, then theology if needed
All that says it that the system you used was flawed so, all systems are and you will impose your own system on the Bible.

History first and theology if needed is a seriously flawed system.

The Bible texts are already theological history. So, it is not one or the other but both should be considered in exegeting scripture. You defer theology but theology is already embedded in historical interpretation. Theology is always needed. At its most basic, theology is the study of God and the Bible is God revealing himself in history.

We should reject systems that dominate Scripture rather than arise from it. History first would dominate Scripture, deferring theology.

Covenant theology derives from an observation, not a theory. It is the Bibles own organizing structure. God relates to man covenantally (Adam, Noach, Abraham, Moses, David, New Covenant).

History first, then theology misunderstands covenantal history. Redemptive history is already theological, and it is covenantal. And Christ is the goal of every covenant.
 
I also just checked the weighty passage of Gal 3, the reference to a covenant is not quite on an end-to-end set up all through the Bible and before time, but rather about what happens when someone tries to make a change..........
That is incorrect.

Jesus, the logos son of God who was with God in the beginning as God by whom, through whom, and for whom all creation was created was the co-recipient of the promises God made to Abraham. I Abraham's visionary dream preceding the formal establishment of the covenant Abraham, he witnessed God (not Abraham) pledge fealty to God. That was the nature of the covenant before it was (formally) established.


Genesis 15:2-18 (excerpted for the sake of space)
2Abram said, “O Lord GOD, what will You give me, since I am childless, and the heir of my house is Eliezer of Damascus?” 3And Abram said, “Since You have given no offspring to me, one born in my house is my heir.” 4Then behold, the word of the LORD came to him, saying, “This man will not be your heir; but one who will come forth from your own body, he shall be your heir.” 5And He took him outside and said, “Now look toward the heavens, and count the stars, if you are able to count them.” And He said to him, “So shall your descendants be.” 6Then he believed in the LORD; and He reckoned it to him as righteousness. 7And He said to him, “I am the LORD who brought you out of Ur of the Chaldeans, to give you this land to possess it.” 8He said, “O Lord GOD, how may I know that I will possess it?” 9So He said to him, “Bring Me a three year old heifer, and a three year old female goat, and a three year old ram, and a turtledove, and a young pigeon.” 10Then he brought all these to Him and cut them in two, and laid each half opposite the other; but he did not cut the birds. 11The birds of prey came down upon the carcasses, and Abram drove them away. 12Now when the sun was going down, a deep sleep fell upon Abram; and behold, terror and great darkness fell upon him............... 17It came about when the sun had set, that it was very dark, and behold, there appeared a smoking oven and a flaming torch which passed between these pieces. 18On that day the LORD made a covenant with Abram.........

Abraham set up the animal carcasses to perform a suzerain ritual of fealty with Abram as the fealty-pledging vassal, as was the common practice in his day. This stands in stark contrast to the Abram's historic refusal to pledge fealty, or be beholding in any way, to any other king. God did not ask Abram to perform a suzerain ritual and God declined to act on the preparations. It was in a dream that God revealed to Abram that it would be God Himself who pled fealty to God under the penalty of death for disobedience and betrayal.

As Paul put it centuries later, God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God. Jesus' pre-existence ties the covenant relationship back to before creation was created. When was Psalm 110:1 decided? After creation? After the Davidic monarchy was established? After resurrection and ascension? Or was it ordained from eternity? And let us not forget, God and God alone is the initiator of God's covenant(s). Covenant is an eternal matter, not a spatio-temporal one.

Galatians 3:16
Now the promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. He does not say, “And to seeds,” as one would in referring to many, but rather as in referring to one, “And to your seed,” that is, Christ.

Abram had many seeds, but only Jesus (not Israel) is the seed of promise.
 
All that says it that the system you used was flawed so, all systems are and you will impose your own system on the Bible.

History first and theology if needed is a seriously flawed system.

The Bible texts are already theological history. So, it is not one or the other but both should be considered in exegeting scripture. You defer theology but theology is already embedded in historical interpretation. Theology is always needed. At its most basic, theology is the study of God and the Bible is God revealing himself in history.

We should reject systems that dominate Scripture rather than arise from it. History first would dominate Scripture, deferring theology.

Covenant theology derives from an observation, not a theory. It is the Bibles own organizing structure. God relates to man covenantally (Adam, Noach, Abraham, Moses, David, New Covenant).

History first, then theology misunderstands covenantal history. Redemptive history is already theological, and it is covenantal. And Christ is the goal of every covenant.


I just showed that the theme at the beginning was that this place earth was under a King. The covenant thing is minor by comparison. Then 2000 years later it's there with Abraham.

There is redemptive history that is not covenantal. God wanted to free people from the control of Satan once he tried to gain it. The fact that the image means this place is God's means that Satan's goal is to take that away and make it his. There's no covenant per se in that.

{Content removed by mod for hijacking thread for personal attack against another member and violations of rule 2.1 and 2.2}
 
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Why history first? For ex., the tension in Galatians, or really, about the Judaizers that 'ghosted' Paul (2 Cor 10 etc) all around. They are trying to bust his groups (the history) by adding to the Gospel (the theology). So he shows that Abraham's promise was Christ and those in Him. He says the Judaizers are voiding this in favor of the Law, which ruins the fellowship in Christ. So now because of knowing this conflict, we will know the theology of Paul. It's not doctrinaire. It's theology that gets a certain thing done: supports and grows Christian groups.

Conversely, we can best understand what Jesus was saying about the fate of his generation by knowing that the zealots would self-destruct. They were all supposed to be missionaries of the Gospel (Rom 10). But we know from history that they pursued the break from Rome. Without this much history, it becomes a trite debate about 'did God punish the Jews because they killed Jesus?" It was never meant to be that shallow.

Those are some examples of what I mean by 'history first, then theology.' One of the great proofs of this is the last declaration of Rom 16: that God had ordered that the Gospel would go to the nations. This is a command, deigma. But it is a summary line about the whole mission movement, and it is according to the prophets. It's not a 'command' from up in heaven and we just hope people comply. It is not a theological position about things. Paul was citing history here--the message had gotten everywhere.
 
I just showed that the theme at the beginning was that this place earth was under a King. The covenant thing is minor by comparison. Then 2000 years later it's there with Abraham.

There is redemptive history that is not covenantal. God wanted to free people from the control of Satan once he tried to gain it. The fact that the image means this place is God's means that Satan's goal is to take that away and make it his. There's no covenant per se in that.

The thing is Arial is that you are saying this while the neo-orthodox theology question is not resolved about John Bauer. There is nothing that difficult about understanding what Schaeffer said about the new theology, but if you are set on seeing covenants everywhere, it's not going to register to you. The issue of it won't be seen because you will just see covenants. The damage of it won't be seen. Lyell the geology figure of the 19th century, thought he was practicing Christianity by dismissing the geologic history while retaining the morality.

John is either doing it because he can't resolve the issues or he is doing it for darker reasons, but, besides my own outbursts (I do not deny them like he does), those of you who manage things here have not started to grasp what Schaeffer and Lewis were saying and you should to be fully-rounded in the whole counsel. (An association near me simply won't hear anything about the astounding demonstration of proof of what Jesus said about the destruction of Jerusalem in his generation--it's "not apologetics" to them!!!).
There are other very important matters than covenants, even philosophical ones, that you should absorb, to do all that apologetics demands.


I mean 2000 years is quite a long time not to mention something…
 
I just showed that the theme at the beginning was that this place earth was under a King. The covenant thing is minor by comparison.
?????

God is certainly King from the beginning, but A King that does not covenant with his people to save his people is normally called a despot. That is the problem to be solved, is it not? Was the tyranny of sin replaced with a divine tyranny?
There is redemptive history that is not covenantal.
Another false dichotomy. Why must the two be separated?
God wanted to free people from the control of Satan once he tried to gain it.
That's a temporal condition. God is neither bound by/to, nor dependent upon temporal conditions, especially not ones that are sinful. This statement, "God wanted....," contradicts the claim of Kingship. Do you not see it (josh asks without any intent to be snarky)? The minute any decision of His is dependent upon the existence of si He ceases to be both God and King!
The fact that the image means this place is God's means that Satan's goal is to take that away and make it his. There's no covenant per se in that.
Alas, this idea the world is Satan's is a myth. Satan is a created creature who is himself enslaved by sin. He's not actually in charge of anything, not even himself! Satan is and has always been a minion.
The thing is Arial is that you are saying this while the neo-orthodox theology question is not resolved about John Bauer.
Yeah..... no.
There is nothing that difficult about understanding what Schaeffer said about the new theology, but if you are set on seeing covenants everywhere.....
Hmmmm....... I do not think you have correctly grasped either author correctly. Ironic, off topic personal snide remarks about others' faculties of comprehension aside (I'll let @John Bauer and @Arial address those comments)..... Both men were classic covenantalists who would have readily asserted a pre-existing covenant between Father and Son. I've already implied an understanding of Lewis shouldn't be pinned on "Man or Rabnit."

Am I understanding correctly you mean to be asserting God as a covenantless Kin, or at least a King whose covenant is irrelevant to His Kingship? And you're basing that on Lewis' "Man..." and Schaeffer's ????? (I didn't read a specific source of Schaeffer's has been provided)? Scheffer's problem with neo-orthodoxy was its subjectivism, a subjective due to the rise of experientialism and the misguided division of revelation and faith from reality. Neither the Bible's report of covenant relationship nor Covenants as understood by Covenant Theology do so. Covenant Theology is creedal in practice, not experiential. It asserts reality from the divine perspective, and the sovereignty of both God and His word (the two aren't very separable in Schaeffer's view). Schaeffer's chief concern with CT was the extreme application some held and its misuse/abuse by the evangelicals of his day, not with CT in general. He, like me, held concerns about the inferred covenant of grace being misused - like any bias does - as an eisegetic filter that prevented a wholer understanding of scripture. He, again, focused this complaint on the handling of covenant theology by the evangelicals of his day. It is, again, ironic, because Schaeffer considered himself an evangelist, not a theologian. Schaeffer the evangelist is the same subscriber to Covenant Theology that wrote "Genesis in Time and Space, thereby demonstrating CTis not incompatible with the reaility of creation nor the historical facts of scripture. Influenced by Van Til, Schaeffer arrived at his position presuppositionally.

Besides no one here in this conversation with you subordinates scripture to post-canonical man-made doctrine. It was plainly stated at the beginning of this thread that Covenant Theology is simply a framework for understanding scripture, not scripture itself. The op is simply asserting the distinction and the superiority of Covenant hermeneutics over the Dispensational alternative. No one here (as far as I can tell (and I have previously argued with most of them about these matters ;)) holds CT above scripture or holds the two to be identical or synonymous.
If your hermeneutic is the fabric of the modern intellectual climate , then........ (emphasis mine)
Have you bothered to prove anyone here is holding to a "the fabric of modern intellectual climate" Or demonstrated Lewis or Schaeffer were not antithetically bound by the same problem)?

If not, the entire dissent is based on a strawman because the "if" does not (yet) exist or apply in this thread. It appears a failure to understand Schaeffer's concerns with evangelicals was mistakenly thought to apply to CT as a whole and the distinct way traditionalists (for lack of a better word) apply the schema in comparison to the evangelicals of his day. Schaeffer's chief theological influences were Machen, Van Til, Dooyeweerd, Kuyper, and Rookmaaker, most of whom were Dutch Reformed and at least two of which were neo-Calvinist. Lewis was also an influence on Schaeffer, but to a much lesser degree, and chiefly by way of the covenant theology to which the synergist-leaning Lewis subscribed as an Anglican. Schaeffer is made to be hugely self-contradictory if he is understood to be opposed to Covenant Theology as a whole. The same holds true if any of the hermeneutical particulars listed in the first eight posts of this thread are thought to be denied by Schaeffer. I think you may have misread Schaeffer, not seen the problems with Lewis' pov, and mistakenly conflated the covenantalists' posts here with evangelical abuses of the theology. To find out, read through them again while asking yourself, "Which if these principles would Schaeffer deny?" and if one is found then ask whether or not the problem is with the hermeneutic or Schaeffer. I don't think you're going to find any discrepancy. The principles and methodology described in the opening posts is holy consistent with Schaeffer's emphasis of objective reality (from the divine perspective and the historicity of scripture.



Someone recently asserted a single comment by Ayn Rand as a wholesale opposition to government regulation preventing pouring toxic chemicals into a river. When I point out that Rand's Objectivism cannot be made to support that position because she was wholly and consistently opposed to one entity abusing the property of another, the critic refused to grasp the premise no one statement anyone makes can be construed to be in opposition to that person's larger philosophy (without either proving the person hypocritical or the statement an exception to the rule). Inconsistencies like that are usually due to errors on the appraiser, not the one making the statement. Schaeffer cannot be thought anti-CT because he was a covenantalist, profoundly influenced some of modernity's greatest Covenant Theologians.

.
 
I have another way to approach the question about when in Biblical historical thought there is a substantial covenant structure : What does it mean in ch 4 that “men began to call on the name of the Lord?” That is, what can it mean at that point?
 
I have another way to approach the question about when in Biblical historical thought there is a substantial covenant structure : What does it mean in ch 4 that “men began to call on the name of the Lord?” That is, what can it mean at that point?
It means men began to call on the Lord.

You don't seem to understand what Covenant theology is.

You are treating it like it is a grid imposed upon the Bible. That is not what it is. Again, think of the frame (skeleton of a house being built). The frame is not the house. It determines the shape of the house, it keeps everything built on the frame true to the foundation, it holds the house together.

Covenant theology sees Scripture revealing a unified redemptive purpose. That purpose unfolds through covenantal administrations. Later revelation interprets earlier revelation. Christ is the goal of every covenant.

When it comes to the Bible, if one is not interpreting history covenantally, one is interpreting incoherently. Perhaps that is why the above question and much of the posts presented don't make any sense to me.
 
“Calling on the name of the Lord” is covenantal language by definition. The phrase presupposes a revealed divine name, a known relationship, and an obligation-bound mode of approach. One cannot “call on the name” of a God who has not already disclosed himself, nor do so meaningfully without some prior framework of worship, promise, and obligation.

Edited to add: If covenant only exists where explicit covenant formulas are recorded, the same objection would have to be raised against Noah prior to Genesis 9, for example. In Genesis 6:18—before the flood!—God does not say, “I will introduce a covenant with you.” No, he will “establish” (hēqîm) his covenant. This presupposes the reality of what is being established. The text itself forecloses the idea that covenant suddenly comes into existence only in Genesis 9. Covenant reality precedes covenant ratification.
 
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I just showed that the theme at the beginning was that this place earth was under a King. The covenant thing is minor by comparison. Then 2000 years later it's there with Abraham.
Being a King is covenantal. The question is not how many times covenant is mentioned, or formal covenants are made. Or how long it is between the Bibe showing formal covenants being made. It is about who God is, how he relates to and has relationship with humans. The covenant from which all else flows is within the Godhead itself and before creation (Eph 1:3-14; 2 Tim 1:9; Titus 1:2; John 6:37-40; John 17:2.6.9.24 etc.). The very fact that God determined to redeem a people through the Son is covenantal. He bound himself in a redemptive relationship to a people for the Son. His very act of creating the earth as a home for humanity is covenantal.
There is redemptive history that is not covenantal. God wanted to free people from the control of Satan once he tried to gain it. The fact that the image means this place is God's means that Satan's goal is to take that away and make it his. There's no covenant per se in that.
Learn the difference between a covenant and covenantal. The fact that God intended (not wanted) to redeem a people from the bonds of sin and to destroy Satan, is a covenant relationship with both the Son (for him) and with those the Son came to die for. A covenant between the Father and the Son in which the Father will give a people to the Son; a covenant between the Son and the Father wherein the Son agrees to take on flesh and do the work of redemption; a covenant with the Holy Spirit and the Father and the Son, to apply that work to persons, seal them in Christ, indwell them.
 
I have another way to approach the question about when in Biblical historical thought there is a substantial covenant structure : What does it mean in ch 4 that “men began to call on the name of the Lord?” That is, what can it mean at that point?
That's not the topic of this op. The topic being discussed it the hermeneutical differences between the hermeneutics of Covenant Theology and Dispensational Premillennialism (there are no non-premillennial Dispensationalist, for the record). Set up an op one the topic of when the covenant began. I for one will gladly provide a viewpoint.
 
I mean 2000 years is quite a long time not to mention something…
Does something not being mentioned by name mean it is not there?
 
It means men began to call on the Lord.

You don't seem to understand what Covenant theology is.

You are treating it like it is a grid imposed upon the Bible. That is not what it is. Again, think of the frame (skeleton of a house being built). The frame is not the house. It determines the shape of the house, it keeps everything built on the frame true to the foundation, it holds the house together.

Covenant theology sees Scripture revealing a unified redemptive purpose. That purpose unfolds through covenantal administrations. Later revelation interprets earlier revelation. Christ is the goal of every covenant.

When it comes to the Bible, if one is not interpreting history covenantally, one is interpreting incoherently. Perhaps that is why the above question and much of the posts presented don't make any sense to me.
“Calling on the name of the Lord” is covenantal language by definition. The phrase presupposes a revealed divine name, a known relationship, and an obligation-bound mode of approach. One cannot “call on the name” of a God who has not already disclosed himself, nor do so meaningfully without some prior framework of worship, promise, and obligation.

Edited to add: If covenant only exists where explicit covenant formulas are recorded, the same objection would have to be raised against Noah prior to Genesis 9, for example. In Genesis 6:18—before the flood!—God does not say, “I will introduce a covenant with you.” No, he will “establish” (hēqîm) his covenant. This presupposes the reality of what is being established. The text itself forecloses the idea that covenant suddenly comes into existence only in Genesis 9. Covenant reality precedes covenant ratification.
Being a King is covenantal. The question is not how many times covenant is mentioned, or formal covenants are made. Or how long it is between the Bibe showing formal covenants being made. It is about who God is, how he relates to and has relationship with humans. The covenant from which all else flows is within the Godhead itself and before creation (Eph 1:3-14; 2 Tim 1:9; Titus 1:2; John 6:37-40; John 17:2.6.9.24 etc.). The very fact that God determined to redeem a people through the Son is covenantal. He bound himself in a redemptive relationship to a people for the Son. His very act of creating the earth as a home for humanity is covenantal.

Learn the difference between a covenant and covenantal. The fact that God intended (not wanted) to redeem a people from the bonds of sin and to destroy Satan, is a covenant relationship with both the Son (for him) and with those the Son came to die for. A covenant between the Father and the Son in which the Father will give a people to the Son; a covenant between the Son and the Father wherein the Son agrees to take on flesh and do the work of redemption; a covenant with the Holy Spirit and the Father and the Son, to apply that work to persons, seal them in Christ, indwell them.
If I may.... this taking us further afield of the op and the premise being argued (a late-date covenant ;)) is a topical red herring.

As far as the hermeneutics of Covenant Theology goes, the "when" of the covenant introduction and application is irrelevant. Christ was foreknown as the perfect, blemish-free sacrifice from the foundation of the world but revealed in the last days. This statement (and many, many others like it provides a hermeneutical continuity that is neither asserted nor found in Dispensationalism. As I noted earlier Galatians 3 and the suzerain ritual in Genesis tie the covenant relationship to some point prior to creation. Even if the covenant of grace is an inferential position it has its place prior to Genesis 15. The Dispensational hermeneutic may acknowledge some (or all) of this but it eschews it all in favor of the dispensation schema. Dispensational Premillennialism is a radically different theology built on a radically different hermeneutic that employs an inconsistent exegesis.

I don't recall this being observed at the beginning of the thread but one of the foundational and major distinctions between the CT and DP hermeneutics is the latter elevates eschatology, not just ecclesiology to the forefront over Christology and soteriology! The entire hermeneutic is secretly eschatological in nature, assuming the end - a much different end than historically held by the rest of Christendom - from the beginning. The cart is before the horse.
 
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The last paragraph meant that there was no elaboration in the text itself about the topic for 2000 years of historical time.
Argument from silence?

The first covenant mentioned is not with Abraham, it's with Noah. So cut at least 300 years off that 2000 ;) .
When the term came up it was a one-party promise, undependent on the other.
All of God's covenants are monergistic in origin, initiation, and establishment. It is only after the covenant relationship is established that anything is asked to the participants. God did not ask Noah if he wanted to be chosen. God did not ask Noah if he wanted to be called. God did not ask Noah if Noah wanted to build a big ship or watch all that life destroyed. God did not ask Noah if Noah wanted God to judge sin so violently. God did not ask Abram if Abram wanted to be chosen, called, or commanded, either. God decided that all on His own and He did so with a divine, sovereign, providential expectation that the command(s) would be obeyed. The contrast between the two men is important because Abram was not wholly obedient. He cut up the animals and arranged for a pagan ritual. His doing so was what the NT might call a work of flesh.
Since I grew up putting a system on the Bible that turned out to be variously flawed, I won't do that again! History first, then theology if needed
Hmmm... While it is true the CT hermeneutic is an acknowledged model for understanding scripture, it is not held to be the only valid model and it is based on an exegetical reading of scripture. All hermeneutics are supposed to be based on an exegetical reading of scripture. One of the matters that decides hermeneutical differences is 1) the degree that exegesis is practiced consistently and 2) the particular feature of exegesis that is emphasized. The CT hermeneutic simply focuses on and emphasizes the covenant content of scripture. Unlike Dispensationalism, the Covenant model did/does not invent that content. A person can actually open the Bible and find the word "covenant" used throughout the scriptures as a self-asserted means of parsing itself. That is not true of dispensations or Dispensationalism. Dispensationalism's hermeneutic is an externally imposed hermeneutic. Covenantalism's hermeneutic is founded on what scripture states. The closest it comes to an invention is that of the covenant of grace and the case for that inference can easily, logically, exegetically be made using what is stated, not what is invented. The two "systems" are not alike.

And as far as the purported "flaws" in the system go, the criticisms in your posts appear to be built on a misreading of other theologians. Atop that, there is definitely a one-sidedness to the criticisms. Were we all to use the criteria you've posted the CT hermeneutic would still be far superior, much more objectively grounded in scripture, to that of the Dispensational alternative. Lastly, whether using a "system," prescribed by others or not, everyone develops a system where one is lacking. It is human nature to do so. An asystematic reading of scripture would be a problem to be solved, not a solution. The relevant questions are, "What system are we using?" and "To what degree is that system based on the explicit content of scripture itself?" Not, "Should a system be used or avoided?"


You are human, yes ;)?
 
Why history first? For ex., the tension in Galatians, or really, about the Judaizers that 'ghosted' Paul (2 Cor 10 etc) all around. They are trying to bust his groups (the history) by adding to the Gospel (the theology). So he shows that Abraham's promise was Christ and those in Him. He says the Judaizers are voiding this in favor of the Law, which ruins the fellowship in Christ. So now because of knowing this conflict, we will know the theology of Paul. It's not doctrinaire. It's theology that gets a certain thing done: supports and grows Christian groups.
The history would mean nothing without the theology first (already present). Paul wouldn't even be saying what he said without the theology being the basis for saying it. And, for the takeaway to be "supporting and growing Christian groups" is application with no meaning established. Paul's purpose was not "supporting and growing" Christian groups. He was teaching, correcting, explaining---depending on what in Galatians you speak of. Where the history comes in is in knowing who he was writing to, when he was writing it and why. IOW what was it going on historically and culturally that prompted the letter? Then we can understand better what is being said and how it fits into the whole, instead of taking things as moral sayings or simply history. And it in no way removes the fact that he is writing to a covenant people.
Conversely, we can best understand what Jesus was saying about the fate of his generation by knowing that the zealots would self-destruct. They were all supposed to be missionaries of the Gospel (Rom 10). But we know from history that they pursued the break from Rome. Without this much history, it becomes a trite debate about 'did God punish the Jews because they killed Jesus?" It was never meant to be that shallow.
That is a prime example of imposing a history first system of interpretation onto the Bible, minus theology (evidently a place where "if needed" is not needed) and interpreting incoherently. I have never heard anyone use Romans 10 to debate about whether God punished the Jews because they killed Jesus. There is nothing in the text that even suggests a debate over why God punished the Jews. I have to ask the question, did you get anything of value, gain any knowledge of God and Christ from Romans 10. Any theological knowledge?
Those are some examples of what I mean by 'history first, then theology.'
You actually said, "then theology if needed."
Those are some examples of what I mean by 'history first, then theology.' One of the great proofs of this is the last declaration of Rom 16: that God had ordered that the Gospel would go to the nations. This is a command, deigma. But it is a summary line about the whole mission movement, and it is according to the prophets. It's not a 'command' from up in heaven and we just hope people comply. It is not a theological position about things. Paul was citing history here--the message had gotten everywhere.
The history in the Bible is Redemptive history. Redemption is covenantal. The Bible is inherently theological. There is no neutral part of the Bible. No matter the genre all are communicating who God is. The Bible tells history selectively and purposefully to reveal God. God reveals himself through covenant acts and words. Scripture is the record and interpretation of those acts.

If one is not interpreting scripture covenantally and theologically, one is interpreting incoherently. See quote above.
 
If your hermeneutic is the fabric of the modern intellectual climate , then there is no advantage to it being Covenant. This is why Dr F Schaeffer spoke so much of neo-orthodox theology, where it was OK for the Bible to ‘be historically false but theologically true.’
What exactly does the modern intellectual climate have to do with what has been posted comparing the two hermeneutics? The hermeneutic is what the hermeneutic is. It also has nothing to do with Schaeffer or neo-orthodox theology.

Covenant theology is Reformed orthodoxy (16th-17h centuries).
 
I keep an eye out for what Dr. Schaeffer was saying because it is quite toxic. I can understand if you can't get what he's saying, but there are 3 good treatments of it by him to tackle.
This OP has nothing to do with Dr. Schaeffer. You are simply changing the topic---also known as hijacking a thread.
The 'liturgical' line by John is the issue here, and if that is what "covenant" theology means, it needs to be reexamined. (It also assumes, like many moderns, that there is no written text until after the exodus). Because really, the Bible is history for quite a while without any "theology" to be "used to guide how we read Genesis." Biological facts seem to lead John to find no meaning to the text; CT is his presumed meaning even though its not there.
Off topic and extremely muddled. Also a passive aggressive attack on a member referring to an entirely different thread and topic.
We should be doing history first, then theology, which is why there is the train wreck when you get to NT eschatology.
That is not at all why there is a train wreck in Dispensational NT eschatology. It is because of the two different hermeneutics.
 
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