Sorry for my ignorance, but what is a pre-denominational Catholic?
To be precise, I am not questioning what Ignatius and Martyr had to say….rather I am questioning any interpretation of their words that claims that they (or either one of them) believed in a real bodily presence. What in their words would require them to believe that a change of substance had occurred, as opposed to believing that upon consecration the symbols share in the reality of the thing that they symbolize?
As for the realistic language used in John 6, there the Jews asked, “How can this man give us his flesh to eat?”….and that is a question Jesus never answered except that:
a. he had already repeatedly stressed that eternal life was received by those that believed in him; and
b. then he stressed that eternal life was received by those that ate his flesh.
It seems rather obvious that he was (metaphorically) equating belief in him with eating his flesh.
Further, I don’t think John’s use of “trogo” helps the Catholic interpretation. How many billions of times have individual Catholics received the Mass? And in those billions and billions of attempts at “eating his flesh” has a single Catholic ever actually “trogo-ed” his flesh (as that verse declares to be necessary)? No, never, not even once. Catholics have trogo-ed bread and wafers (grinding them to mushy crumbs), but never has a Catholic ever actually “trogo-ed” the flesh of the Son of Man and so, according to those words of Christ, no Catholic would have life within him/her…that is, if you want to take “trogo” literally and not figuratively.
To be precise, I am not questioning what Ignatius and Martyr had to say….rather I am questioning any interpretation of their words that claims that they (or either one of them) believed in a real bodily presence. What in their words would require them to believe that a change of substance had occurred, as opposed to believing that upon consecration the symbols share in the reality of the thing that they symbolize?
As for the realistic language used in John 6, there the Jews asked, “How can this man give us his flesh to eat?”….and that is a question Jesus never answered except that:
a. he had already repeatedly stressed that eternal life was received by those that believed in him; and
b. then he stressed that eternal life was received by those that ate his flesh.
It seems rather obvious that he was (metaphorically) equating belief in him with eating his flesh.
Further, I don’t think John’s use of “trogo” helps the Catholic interpretation. How many billions of times have individual Catholics received the Mass? And in those billions and billions of attempts at “eating his flesh” has a single Catholic ever actually “trogo-ed” his flesh (as that verse declares to be necessary)? No, never, not even once. Catholics have trogo-ed bread and wafers (grinding them to mushy crumbs), but never has a Catholic ever actually “trogo-ed” the flesh of the Son of Man and so, according to those words of Christ, no Catholic would have life within him/her…that is, if you want to take “trogo” literally and not figuratively.