CrowCross
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I see a few problems....
When I speak of the third temple I speak of the future temple to be built.
For that day will not come, unless the DEPARTURE comes first,...this is how the Geneva Bible of 1587 put it prior to the word being changed to apostasy....or revolt as your translation used.
So, apostasy...just what does the word mean?
The meaning of the word refers to ... "to stand away" or "to depart." I copied that directly from Strongs 646. apostasia
The question is....does depart mean a spiritual departure or a physical spatial departure? Or can it refer to BOTH?
Concerning a physical departure the word apostasia is derived from the word aphistémi. Acts 12:10 uses this word as follows
"and they went out, and passed on through one street; and forthwith the angel departed from him." This departure wasn't a spiritual departure but rather a physical departure.
Considering the make up of the word can refer to both a spiritual or physical departure we need to look at the subject or text of 2 Thes 2.
But first, will you agree the word can refer to a spiritual departure or a physical spatial departure.
In other words one could easily conclude that the pre-trib rapture is this departure.
From what I understand Jesus was saying tear down "this temple"...his body which represented the temple of God and He would resurrect in 3 days.Well, I won't deny 2 Thess, and by association Dan 9 are difficult passages, both for any iteration of preterism or futurism, but like any exegesis, you have to juxtapose the 'less known' with the 'absolutely known' in scripture. What is absolutely known is that Jesus is the Third Temple, and we know 'Tear down this Temple" (that He physically stood in) "and in 3 days I will rebuild it" (His Resurrection) is rock solid.
When I speak of the third temple I speak of the future temple to be built.
Well, not quite. The word apostasia may have a different meaning that you think....Then you go from there and parse other things not by what IS questionable, but as to not contradict what is NOT questionable. 2 Thess can be a mire, but one thing I notice is in 2 Thess 2:3 much is made of "apostacy", but the word essentially means "revolt".. and what do ya know, preceding 70 AD was "The" revolt of all revolts. And when you move through the relevant passages, you find too much alignment with 70AD to be mere coincidence.
For that day will not come, unless the DEPARTURE comes first,...this is how the Geneva Bible of 1587 put it prior to the word being changed to apostasy....or revolt as your translation used.
So, apostasy...just what does the word mean?
The meaning of the word refers to ... "to stand away" or "to depart." I copied that directly from Strongs 646. apostasia
The question is....does depart mean a spiritual departure or a physical spatial departure? Or can it refer to BOTH?
Concerning a physical departure the word apostasia is derived from the word aphistémi. Acts 12:10 uses this word as follows
"and they went out, and passed on through one street; and forthwith the angel departed from him." This departure wasn't a spiritual departure but rather a physical departure.
Considering the make up of the word can refer to both a spiritual or physical departure we need to look at the subject or text of 2 Thes 2.
But first, will you agree the word can refer to a spiritual departure or a physical spatial departure.
In other words one could easily conclude that the pre-trib rapture is this departure.
I don't think Jerusalem is Babylon.2 Thess 2 clearly aligns with Dan 9 and there are several events that are eerily symmetrical with the Siege, many cite Titus entering the Holy of Holies, but even before that Simon bar Giora had gone in and sacked it, eating the showbread and melting down sacred vessels (into what?), slaughtering priests.. causing the "oblation to cease". Rev 16:19 cites "And the great city was split into three parts.."
I see a problem with timing and order with trying to fit it into a preterist box.and the 3 leaders of the Jewish revolts had split the city into 3 sections, and were infighting.. and I mean it goes on and on. Bottom line is for the futurist, ALL of the relevant scriptures are total 'mystery', left guessing that every news headline for 2K years is eschatological prophey being fulfilled.. just doesn't fly, whereas, with at the very least a partial preterist view causes a Huge amount of the relevant scripture to literally harmonize with both itself and history.
Thanks for the explanation. Eschatology can be difficult.So, that is why my position is a rejection of both full preterism and full futurism, because to my eye the reality seems to be in a more moderate position that allows for elements of the 2 views without one fully precluding the other.