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Third Jewish Temple in Jerusalem

You should have paid attention to what I said---which was primarily quoted scriptures----when I said it. And addressed it them. I am not going back over what I said just so you have something to do.
Anybody can quote scripture and feel "religious". Heck, even the Mormons do it. You can even say, I quoted Jesus so why do you make Him a liar.
The problem is many quote the scripture incorrectly. Now, I'm not saying you quote scripture incorrectly as when I read your post I see a lot of truth correctly presented.
What I see is an improper interpretation of the end time events. In reality that doesn't matter as your eschatological beliefs don't affect your salvation.
However...I do see a lot of antagonistic remarks presented to those that hold a pre tribulation view.
I've asked several times for some sort of clarification...and all I get is...it's already been answered.
 
As a struggling believer, I hate it when I see people talk like this...
I thought I was nice telling Arial that I often appreciate her post....Do I have to agree with everything she says? Obviously no as my post pointed out.
 
Thank you for taking the time to do the research.
I've looked at 2 Thes. 2:4 in the lexicons as well as the interlinear and this is the way I believe it should be understood. Be aware that the word used for 'God' is the SAME word used for a false god or goddess. The word used for 'temple' is the same word that's used fora heathen temple or shrine. I also noticed from the interlinear that the KJV translators also dropped the word temple of (the) God. AND! The word God/god is used four times in verse 4. The interlinear shows GOD capitalized twice and twice it is not. Another major KJV blunder. One more interesting note:

The Greek interlinear uses the word God in verse 4 twice and god twice. Look at the interlinear link. When the word god is NOT capitalized, it shows it like this...n_ Acc Sg m. (noun, accusative case, singular, masculine) That means when god isn't capitalized,

Verse 4 is better interpreted like this,

Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called god, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the heathen temple (Dome of the Rock) OF THE god (Allah), shewing himself that he is God.
Interesting thought. I never heard that some believe the Dome of the Rock was the temple mentioned in 2 Thes 2:4.
Currently I don't believe that. But as I said, interesting thought.

My question would be....who is the restrainer and when was the restrainer taken out of the way so that the lawless could be revealed?

What was the strong delusion God sent?

I'll address.... " 3 Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion/apostasy comes first, "....in the response below.
The word God

The word God in this verse is theos. The primary meaning of that word is of any god or goddess. It is also used to describe the one true God.

The word Temple.
The word temple in 2 Thes. 2 is naos Strong's # 3485 and that word is the one used to imply a heathen temple.

1) used of the temple at Jerusalem,
2) any heathen temple or shrine.
This word is also used in the book of Acts to describe the temple that the idol stood in.
2 Thes. 2 is a unique passage. in it, we have the 'parousia' or Day of Christ. "The harpazo" or rapture. A falling away, rebellion or, "apostasia," the revelation of the man of sin, the workings of Satan, strong delusion and more. In it we learn more about the anti-Christ and his followers than any other New Testament passage. This small passage is definitely apocalyptic.

This word apostasy is unique since this is the only place it's translated 'falling away,' and a poor translation of the word. It comes from a word meaning a 'divorce' or to defect and to abandon something. The only other place it's used is in Acts 21:21 where it's translated\~forsake. There really isn't any other place we can go in the bible to understand it. Since the reformation, interpreters have missed the mark on this one. They've attributed this apostasy to the Church because of their unfavorable opinion of Rome.
APOSTASY...
the
Geneva Bible of 1587 put it this way....
Let no man deceiue you by any meanes: for that day shall not come, except there come a departing first, and that that man of sinne be disclosed, euen the sonne of perdition,

So, apostasy...just what does the word mean?

The meaning of the word refers to ... "to stand away" or "to depart." I copied that directly from Strongs 646. apostasia

The question is....does depart mean a spiritual departure or a physical spatial departure? Or can it refer to BOTH?

Concerning a physical departure the word apostasia is derived from the word aphistémi. Acts 12:10 uses this word as follows
"and they went out, and passed on through one street; and forthwith the angel departed from him." This departure wasn't a spiritual departure but rather a physical departure.

Considering the make up of the word can refer to both a spiritual or physical departure we need to look at the subject or text of 2 Thes 2.

But first, will you agree the word can refer to a spiritual departure or a physical spatial departure.

2 Thes 2 starts off by speaking of the "gathering"
Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,...which I see as the rapture of the church presented in 1 Thes 4.....knowing that it's not hard to see the "departure" in 2 Thes 3 is a reference to the pre-trib rapture when the christians are removed....paving the way for the rebuilding of the temple and the antichrist setting up the "peace plan"
The reformers were convinced that since Rome crucified Christ, destroyed Jerusalem and the Temple, and persecuted Christians during the reformation, they would also emerge as the end-time beast(s). We have been conditioned to believe that for so long that Christians don't even question it and have difficulty changing their minds about it.
 
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