I fail to see how the phrase "the second coming" not being in the Bible has any bearing on anything I originally wrote in the OP. Can you clarify that point please?
Why does the actual phrase not being in the Bible have applicability to anything I said?
Failure to see is not a problem on my end of the conversation and yes I can clarify what I posted. It matters because doctrines have been formed throughout Christian history that add to scripture and aren't wholly consistent with whole scripture. The modern futurist view of The Second Coming is one of them. In addition, a good way to recognize someone holding scripturally exegetical doctrine, thinking rationally about doctrine, and able to have a cogent conversation about doctrine is to verify whether or not they can and will agree to the very most basic facts of scripture.
For example, I KNOW I can never have a cogent conversation with someone who argues scripture does state there is The Second Coming stated in scripture but who also refuses to evidence their claim. Conversely, I know I might be able to have a cogent conversation with someone who openly and immediately directly states, "
The phrase isn't found anywhere in scripture" and doesn't hide behind, "
but it's in there" unless they are also honest and forthcoming with how the position is reached.... "
The exact phrase is not in scripture, but it is a position arrived at through a specific inferential reading of various statements that are found in scripture."
I've spent decades (literally) asking Dispensationalists and Zionists where scripture explicitly states another temple of stone will be built and less than five have ever thought to be immediately direct, honest and forthcoming. I've done the same with Trinitarians and hundreds of them have been immediately direct, honest, and forthcoming. Itis telling.
The actual phrase is applicable because and discussion of "
the second coming" ought to start with honest and forthcoming acknowledgment of the facts of scripture, beginning with the fact the concept "
The Second Coming" is a post-scripture invention. That does not mean it does not have veracity, but it is the place to start. It is applicable to what was posted because different end times views hold different views of the second coming and the opening posts is decidedly specific. Most of Christendom has not historically held the second coming of Christ occurs "
at a rapture of dead people coming out of graves along with alive people who both fly into the sky to meet Jesus on a cloud, which then turns into a commencement of 1000 years of Jesus being a king in the temple in Jerusalem." So when the op then asks, "If that is not a correct interpretation or it isn't true then what is it?" the answer most Christians will give is, "
No, that's not what Christianity has historically held to be true, orthodox, or mainstream. That particular view is on held by one particular end time view that was literally invented late in Christian history in the 19th century."
Furthermore, depending on how a person or a doctrine defines a "coming," scripture can and should be read to show Jesus come many times in many ways for many reasons or purposes. That has been the historical position of the Church, especially in the early days of the Church and among Protestant theology. Jesus came in the form of the Holy Spirit at Pentecost. He comes and dwells within each convert at the time of their conversion. I he came to Saul on the Damascus road, struck him blind, knocked him off his donkey, and spoke to him personally. We also know Jesus was said to be coming a second time for a salvation apart from sin and most of futurist eschatology has him coming to deal with sin and save some from it. Their second coming directly conflicts and fails to reconcile with
Hebrew 9:28 (the only time in scripture we actually find the word "
second" explicitly attached to his coming). He came in judgment at the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD and, although the canon of scripture has been closed we can reasonably argue he has come in other ways throughout history. Therefore, a better term to use - and what most Christians mean when using the phrase "
Second Coming," is "
Final Coming." Even among Premillennialists there is a huge distinction between Historicists (the oldest pov) and Dispensationalists (the infant of the povs) because the former teach the rapture and the millennium coming co-occur and the latter say they are separated (by either seven or three-and-a-half) years. In Dispensationalism, Jesus comes a second time but only in the air to rapture away Christians, and then he returns - coming all the way to earth physically, to live here and reign for one thousand literal years - but he fails and rebellion overtakes his reign, so he has to come back to kill all the rebels a second time before concluding everything with a final judgment. The Dispensational view is, comparatively, rather messy. The Amils, the Postmils, and many Idealists, look for a single final coming when God concludes the current age, gathers everyone together, saved and unsaved, and mete's out the recompence for sin or life in Christ. These are vastly different views of a doctrine whose label is never actually explicitly stated anywhere in the Bible.
That is why it is applicable to anything you said. Care to discuss it? If so, then I look forward to an unequivocal, direct, immediate acknowledgment the phrase is nowhere found in scripture
.
....I don't think Biblical eschatology makes much sense in any literal way.
Can I hold you to that? Can you at least agree the phrase "
The Second Coming" is nowhere found in the Bible?
I fail to see how the phrase "the second coming" not being in the Bible has any bearing on anything I originally wrote in the OP. Can you clarify that point please? Why does the actual phrase not being in the Bible have applicability to anything I said?
Can you at least agree the phrase "
The Second Coming" is nowhere found in the Bible?