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I do not know where elsewhere is.I have answered this question elsewhere and do not feel the need to repeat myself here.
I do not know where elsewhere is.I have answered this question elsewhere and do not feel the need to repeat myself here.
I don't know where elsewhere is. What is the problem with just answering my question? Why did you choose Christ? I am not asking for your testimony or any long explanation. Why did you decide to choose Christ?I have answered this question elsewhere and do not feel the need to repeat myself here.
You have made it clear that is what you believe and I have made it clear that it is not correct.
All are not drawn. Prove that by scripture.
It was not based in anything meritorious on my part.I don't know where elsewhere is. What is the problem with just answering my question? Why did you choose Christ? I am not asking for your testimony or any long explanation. Why did you decide to choose Christ?
It is a good testimony and I don't doubt it for a minute. However I do not see anywhere in there that you chose Christ, other than you were afraid of hell (which shows you believed there was hell.) According to what you said, you did not even know if God was real, yet you cried out to Him.It was not based in anything meritorious on my part.
But I chose Him because of a (sinful) sense of self-preservation, when faced with the fires of hell.
I also said to God, "I don't know if You're real; but I'm going to start reading Your word and doing what it says; and I know that if You are real, You will reveal Yourself to me."
God didn't even wait two seconds but descended on me in waves of liquid love; with an ecstatic joy unspeakable and full of glory and a peace that passes all understanding.
There's a little more to the lazy thinking in that fallacious argument that's worth noting. Anyone who believes faith is also gifted, whether they be Calvinist or Arminian, has the problem just cited in the op. If God's grace is predicated on a person first hearing, believing, and trusting, and those things come from God then there is a whole lot of "arbitrary" going on. Only the Pelagian, those who think something of the created order remains in the sinfully dead and enslaved flesh can escape the divine arbitrary, and that person is then left with the randomness (arbitrariness) of his own life's experience.Introduction
One objection I've come across over the years is the "arbitrary" objection toward unconditional election. Simply stated: If God elects unconditionally, then He elects arbitrarily. The flip side is the assumption that the same is true of those not elected. We can see one particular poster express this concern.
Let's not forget the biggest problem is that of incorrectly defining Unconditional Election (UC). Most think it is the election that is conditioned. Either God conditioned His election upon fleshly faith (synergism) or He conditioned His election on some arbitrary condition (the Divine blindfolded throw at the Divine Dartboard). Either way it is a conditioned election. That election could be unconditional is incomprehensible, so the thinking never turns to the specified caveat of UC, no conditions of the sinful flesh.One can see the initial plausibility of objection; it is largely based off of the idea of unconditionality. God's choice is unconditioned by anything in the person, so then it must be arbitrary. In spite of the initial or seeming plausibility, the argument has significant and serious flaws. The flaws of the argument actually reveal the worldview and assumptions of the objector. When the assumptions are examined, this spells far more doom toward the objector than it does toward unconditional election.
I would argue God's purpose precedes election but, otherwise, well done (Rom. 9:16-18).We will examine the objection by expounding upon a few simple points. First, one must have a proper understanding unconditional election. The possibility of straw men is remarkably strong for those who disagree with unconditional election; thus, it is utterly important to understand the basics before ever trying to send a criticism. Second, we will examine if the reversed assumption has merit. The reversed assumption is that if people are elected to salvation unconditionally, then they are elected to damnation unconditionally. Third, the charge of "arbitrary" needs a definition. What is meant by "arbitrary?" And does unconditional election actually lead to an arbitrary decision? These two question are the subjection of the third portion. Fourth, we will look into the assumptions of the objector. (1) One assumption is that people do not have a choice when unconditionality is present in election. (2) The other assumption is that if the person is removed from a criteria for election, then God doesn't have a reason for His choice.
These four steps will lead us forward toward a conclusion stated at the end. Let's take some time to examine these important issues.
Properly Understanding Unconditional Election
The first stop on the tour is a proper understanding of what unconditional election entails. Article nine of the Canons of Dort states the following (quote taken from top of forum link; thread titled "The Reformed Faith").
By unconditional is meant that God's choice was not based upon "foreseen faith, of the obedience of faith, of holiness, or of any other good quality and disposition, as though it were based on a prerequisite cause or condition in the person chosen." Rather than these things somehow being the basis of election; election is the basis of these things. Election is the initial choice that then leads to and brings about holiness, faith, and anything good in the one chosen. Hence, the word "source" was used to describe election's relation to the "benefits of salvation."
I try to stay away from extra-biblical sources unless they are the topic of discussion. It's too easy to get into competing sources and fallacious appeals to authority. I hope everyone understands my personal reluctant to entertain the practice.We will consider one more source. Wayne Grudem's Systematic Theology is a fairly common systematic theolog......
It's the aforementioned Romans 9:16-18 that are critical. Those verses explicitly preclude anything human from being causal and just as explicitly places the relevant mercy solely on God, His will, and His purpose (the demonstration of His power).Scripturally, the appeal is often made to Romans 9:11-13 where it says.
"though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad—in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls— 12 she was told, “The older will serve the younger.” 13 As it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.”"
Romans 11:5-6 is another passage, and the focus here is upon God's grace. Human endeavor is excluded. Note: the passage does not say "meritorious works," but rather the more general expression "works" is used. Hence, the general category of human endeavor is excluded.
"So too at the present time there is a remnant, chosen by grace. 6 But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works; otherwise grace would no longer be grace."
2 Timothy 2:9 again points out the negation of human endeavor.
"who saved us and called us to[a] a holy calling, not because of our works but because of his own purpose and grace, which he gave us in Christ Jesus before the ages began"
(Aside from the extra-biblical appeal), Well done.(1) A historical appeal was made in defining unconditional election, and (2) a more current systematic theology provided the second, and the (3) third portion briefly stated a few verses that lead us to the definition of unconditional election. With the definitions given above, one can better discern what is and what is not unconditional election.
Since the definition is more clear, we can immediately note the initial objection. More specifically, we can seen how unnuanced and truncated it is. No definition is given of the meaning of "unconditional." No elaboration is given to what this may refer to. The reader is then forced to supply the content, and to the ignorant it may very well seem that "unconditional" means the absence of all reason. But ignorance does not rule the day, and "unconditional" has a very specific focus. Namely, God's choice to save some is not based upon human merit, foreseen faith, or anything good of the person. Rather, God choice to save is the source of all good and God-honoring actions among those chosen.
This is not the conclusion of the opening post, for I will continue to write after posting this initial installment. The reason is simple: post size requirements and time. Hopefully, I can average a post a day.
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[1] Grudem, Wayne. Systematic Theology: An Introduction to Biblical Doctrine. Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 2000. p. 670.
(Opening Post 1 of 4)
If that means what you say it does then it is contradicting John 6:35-40. And many other scriptures, not to mention we know from scripture that not all are saved. We also know that not all are drawn to Christ in any sense of the word. That would imply that everyone sees Him and then chooses whether to believe Him or not.Jhn 12:32, And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.
I believe that God came to me because I chose Him because that is what the Bible teaches.It is a good testimony and I don't doubt it for a minute. However I do not see anywhere in there that you chose Christ, other than you were afraid of hell (which shows you believed there was hell.) According to what you said, you did not even know if God was real, yet you cried out to Him.
It sounds more like a rebirth to me, God coming to you, in you---and is that when you believed? After He met you right where you were?
Is the reason you believe that you chose Christ first, (and be very honest with yourself here, and contemplate it, rather than simply react) because that is what you have heard? That we must take the first step and choose something, say a prayer of invitation or obedience or repentance, and then we will be saved. That that is what is done before God will redeem us? And so now you read that concept into the scriptures? And so now you have come to trust in your own decision, rather than what God did for you, and perhaps are afraid a bit to let go of it?
Why bother with all that, fighting against Calvinism and your view of it as you do? Why not simply recognize the glory and love of what God did for you in the less than two seconds, that brought about your believing, not choosing first?
If that means what you say it does then it is contradicting John 6:35-40.
And many other scriptures,
not to mention we know from scripture that not all are saved. We also know that not all are drawn to Christ in any sense of the word. That would imply that everyone sees Him and then chooses whether to believe Him or not.
So maybe what God means by all and that they are drawn to Him is something other than every individual. Well we do know from scripture
that Jesus did not die for every single person in the world, but only those who believe. And we do know that salvation through His work on the cross made salvation available to all nations and all types of people, so maybe that is what "all" means in John 12:32.
If all are drawn as in each individual, and sufficient grace to choose Him is given to every single person, as you say, then there would be no one ever who was not faced with the choice in black and white, Jesus, or not Jesus. It would mean that every single person ever heard the gospel and was offered a choice on the spot.
I don't see that. please explain further why you think that.
Will you listen or will you ignore it. Am I wasting my time if I do so? Because I do not feel like wasting my time. So let me know and redirect me to the post if you will listen.such as?
Please explain that as it sounds like you are disagreeing with yourself.The reality is that not all who are drawn are necessarily given.
Let me put that sentence back together and back into it context, so it makes sense. It looks like you jumped on the first part before reading the rest of the sentence. In which case you told me I was wrong before you even knew what I was saying.What scripture? 1 John 2:2 tells me the opposite of what you are saying.
So maybe what God means by all and that they are drawn to Him is something other than every individual. Well we do know from scripture that Jesus did not die for every single person in the world, but only those who believe. And we do know that salvation through His work on the cross made salvation available to all nations and all types of people, so maybe that is what "all" means in John 12:32.
You support that with nothing. All you do is give your opinion. What if the "all" in 1 John 2:2 is the same "all" in John 12:32? Jesus certainly did not propitiate (satisfy the necessary justice for reconciliation between God and man) for all men without exception. You cannot add the caveat "but only for those who choose to believe" after the fact in order to arrive at the proper meaning of the passages.Nope. "All" means "all".
The knowledge of God, of His existence and power and sovereignty over His creation that is spoken of in Romans 1 and 2 condemns all of mankind, but it does not provide the gospel message of salvation through faith in Christ.Actually, being drawn to Christ does not only consist of being given an opportunity to receive Him.
It may also consist of being faced with the light of creation (Romans 1) and/or the light of conscience (Romans 2); as I have mentioned previously
So God is dependent on you? God wouldn't/couldn't/didn't save you until your sinful flesh chose Him?I believe that God came to me because I chose Him because that is what the Bible teaches.
I every single one of those texts the people getting saved were already in a God initiated covenant into which they were brought unawares. They were chosen, called, and commanded without their being asked if they wanted to be chosen, called, or commanded. Furthermore, not a single one of those texts states the "something" is done in order to procure salvation. In fact, the Acts 2 passage states at the end it was God that added to the Church's numbers, not the ones salved.In Hosea 14:2, Romans 10:9-13, and Acts 2:38-39, there is clearly something that we do in order to procure salvation.
Something done in order to procure salvation, or something done as a consequence of God monergistically saving them? In Hosea 14:2 the ability to offer the fruit of their lips is predicated on their iniquity being taken away and God's receiving them with grace. Only then can the fruit of their lips be presented......there is clearly something that we do in order to procure salvation.
If that were the case, then it would not be by grace but by works. "Doing" is always a work. The things you speak of are what happens because we have been saved, and the light bulb has been turned on.I believe that God came to me because I chose Him because that is what the Bible teaches.
In Hosea 14:2, Romans 10:9-13, and Acts 2:38-39, there is clearly something that we do in order to procure salvation.
So, Romans 10:9 can be effectively rendered,If that were the case, then it would not be by grace but by works. "Doing" is always a work. The things you speak of are what happens because we have been saved, and the light bulb has been turned on.
Did you believe the gospel before you asked God to reveal Himself to you or after He did. Was it the gospel that you believed when you cried out to Him as you did? Did He say to you, "Choose Christ and then will reveal Myself to you." It always looks like us. That is the way we are oriented. But that does not mean it is us.
"doing" is not always a work.If that were the case, then it would not be by grace but by works. "Doing" is always a work. The things you speak of are what happens because we have been saved, and the light bulb has been turned on.
Did you believe the gospel before you asked God to reveal Himself to you or after He did. Was it the gospel that you believed when you cried out to Him as you did? Did He say to you, "Choose Christ and then will reveal Myself to you." It always looks like us. That is the way we are oriented. But that does not mean it is us.
Who is the "thou" in that verse? To whom is Paul referring when he says, "thou" in that verse?So, Romans 10:9 can be effectively rendered,
Rom 10:9, That if thou shalt be saved, thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead.
Nevertheless, this is what it really says:
Rom 10:9, That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.
I believe that you have things in the reverse order of what is taught by holy scripture
The person who will be saved as the result of calling on the name of the Lord.Who is the "thou" in that verse? To whom is Paul referring when he says, "thou" in that verse?
That is not an answer to the question asked. Paul identifies his audience at the beginning of the epistle and a few places thereafter in that letter. The answer to the question identifying the "thou" is given to us! Let's try it again.Who is the "thou" in that verse? To whom is Paul referring when he says, "thou" in that verse?
The person who will be saved as the result of calling on the name of the Lord.
The person who will be saved as the result of confessing with his mouth the Lord Jesus and believing in his heart that God hath raised Him from the dead.That is not an answer to the question asked. Paul identifies his audience at the beginning of the epistle and a few places thereafter in that letter. The answer to the question identifying the "thou" is given to us! Let's try it again.
Who is the "thou" in Romans 10:9? To whom is Paul referring when he says, "thou" in Romans 10:9?
.
No, that is not "clearly" what is spoken.The person who will be saved as the result of confessing with his mouth the Lord Jesus and believing in his heart that God hath raised Him from the dead.
That is clearly what is spoken in Romans 10:9.
Stow that cr@p.But apparently, it contradicts your theology so you have to find some way to have another interpretation.