The Abrahamic Covenant According to Paul

[Arial]

The scripture this OP is based on is Romans chapter 4.



In chapters 1-3 Paul has placed all humanity under the sentence of unrighteous. Chapter 3 starting with verse 21, he gives the solution to our condemnation. The righteousness of Christ, and through faith in him, justifying the believer before God, that salvation be by the grace of God and not of works. And that this salvation is not for Jews only.

Paul then in chapter 4 begins in great detail to connect this righteousness through faith with the covenant God made with Abraham long before the law was given and the first place it is explicitly stated (to my recollection) where righteousness is imputed (counted as) faith apart from works.

Keep in mind as we go through this that Paul is explaining justification through faith and not works and tying it to the covenant with Abraham. He is expanding its purpose/goal and bringing it into its fulfillment in Christ.


" What then shall we say was gained by Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.” 4 Now to the one who works, his wages are not counted as a gift but as his due. 5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,"

What does "justifies the ungodly" mean? Most of us likely know what it means and Eph 2 comes to mind where it is said that while we were dead in our trespasses and sins, God made us alive in Christ. And to the Reformed/Calvinist this making us alive is connected to the new birth of John 3. While this is true and is definitely connected, in Romans 4 that is not the area/category of Paul's discussion.

Here he is speaking of the indictment under which all stand (Romans 3) whether the Jews who were given the law or the Gentiles who were not given the oracles, law, and prophets. He is emphasizing the impossibility of any works of man to save unto eternal life. No man can justify himself before God. Since all are "ungodly" how then can the "ungodly" be saved? Paul is telling us how the ungodly can be saved. By faith in the person and work of Christ. Believing God when he says we are saved by the person and work of the Son. His focus here is removing all possibility of works of any sort being added to the work of Christ for salvation.

I have seen on this forum where v.5 "And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness." removed from all context and used as support for eternal justification. That is, that the elect are justified legally at the cross before they come to faith. In its context, the scripture the emphasis is on how one is justified not when---through faith, not apart from it.


In v. 3 "For what does the Scripture say? 'Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness." Encapsulated in that simple statement is the definition of saving faith. He believed God. Abraham did not have all the information we have concerning the incarnate, buried, risen Son that we have but the way or righteousness was still "believing God" (Heb 11:8-12).

What is it that God says that we believe? Everything of course. And if we believe everything that he said in the Bible, we believe what he says about the Son. And we put our trust for salvation only in him and his substitutionary sacrifice on the cross. Works of righteousness will not grant us entrance into the kingdom of God and eternal life with him. Only imputed righteousness and that only from the perfectly righteous one.

In vs. 9-10 Paul makes a point of saying that the faith counted as righteousness came before circumcision. He is stressing this because there was a tension in the Roman church between the Jewish believers and the Gentile believers. But also, he is making a distinction between the salvation through faith that runs within the Sinai covenant but is nevertheless distinct.

Romans 4:11 "He (Abraham) received the sign of circumcision as a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised."

The circumcision of Abraham as a seal/sign of his faith counted as righteousness before works is not the same thing as the requirement for circumcision in the Sinai Covenant.

Gen 17:10-11 "This is my covenant---Every male among you shall be circumcised--it is a sign of the covenant." It identifies membership in Israel and is obligatory under the law. Now Paul is distinguishing between the Abrahamic promise and the later law. The two are related but they are not identical functions.

This was serving a particular purpose. Romans 4:11 The purpose was to make him the father of all who believe without being circumcised, so that righteousness would be counted to them as well."

That faith came before the sign when God was speaking with Abraham, and that the later same sign of circumcision was given as law to Abraham's descendants who inherited the promised land is significant. It keeps the first active (justification by faith) while the second is serving its purpose.

Verse 12 "And to make him the father of the circumcised who are not merely circumcised, but who also walk in the footsteps of the faith--" Abraham is the father of the uncircumcised believers and the father of circumcised believers.

Verse 13 "The promise to Abraham---did not come through the law but through the righteousness of faith."

The promise is received through righteousness by faith." It has been said that this was not a covenant because promises are not covenants. True not all promises are covenants, but when God promises something to a covenantal people, he is a covenantally bound to that promise. Of course, the claim was made to keep national Israel distinct from the church in eschatology, but we will get to that in a bit. The promise is guaranteed to all Abraham's offspring. Romans 4:16 "That is why it depends on faith---to guarantee it to all his offspring---not only to the adherent of the law but also to the one who shares the faith of Abraham."

Abraham's family is expanded in Paul's argument. It is not physical descent alone but faith like Abraham's. The promise extends beyond national borders and ethnicity. It is centered in Christ (Gal 3:16).

Abraham is not merely the father of one nation, but of all who believe. The promise was never grounded in law circumcision or ethnicity---but in faith.

That promise finds its fulfillment in Christ
He is the true seed.
And all who are in him are heirs--not by blood, not by law, but by faith.

 

[TMSO]

The scripture this OP is based on is Romans chapter 4.



In chapters 1-3 Paul has placed all humanity under the sentence of unrighteous. Chapter 3 starting with verse 21, he gives the solution to our condemnation. The righteousness of Christ, and through faith in him, justifying the believer before God, that salvation be by the grace of God and not of works. And that this salvation is not for Jews only.

Paul then in chapter 4 begins in great detail to connect this righteousness through faith with the covenant God made with Abraham long before the law was given and the first place it is explicitly stated (to my recollection) where righteousness is imputed (counted as) faith apart from works.

Keep in mind as we go through this that Paul is explaining justification through faith and not works and tying it to the covenant with Abraham. He is expanding its purpose/goal and bringing it into its fulfillment in Christ.


" What then shall we say was gained by Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.” 4 Now to the one who works, his wages are not counted as a gift but as his due. 5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,"

What does "justifies the ungodly" mean? Most of us likely know what it means and Eph 2 comes to mind where it is said that while we were dead in our trespasses and sins, God made us alive in Christ. And to the Reformed/Calvinist this making us alive is connected to the new birth of John 3. While this is true and is definitely connected, in Romans 4 that is not the area/category of Paul's discussion.

Here he is speaking of the indictment under which all stand (Romans 3) whether the Jews who were given the law or the Gentiles who were not given the oracles, law, and prophets. He is emphasizing the impossibility of any works of man to save unto eternal life. No man can justify himself before God. Since all are "ungodly" how then can the "ungodly" be saved? Paul is telling us how the ungodly can be saved. By faith in the person and work of Christ. Believing God when he says we are saved by the person and work of the Son. His focus here is removing all possibility of works of any sort being added to the work of Christ for salvation.

I have seen on this forum where v.5 "And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness." removed from all context and used as support for eternal justification. That is, that the elect are justified legally at the cross before they come to faith. In its context, the scripture the emphasis is on how one is justified not when---through faith, not apart from it.


In v. 3 "For what does the Scripture say? 'Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness." Encapsulated in that simple statement is the definition of saving faith. He believed God. Abraham did not have all the information we have concerning the incarnate, buried, risen Son that we have but the way or righteousness was still "believing God" (Heb 11:8-12).

What is it that God says that we believe? Everything of course. And if we believe everything that he said in the Bible, we believe what he says about the Son. And we put our trust for salvation only in him and his substitutionary sacrifice on the cross. Works of righteousness will not grant us entrance into the kingdom of God and eternal life with him. Only imputed righteousness and that only from the perfectly righteous one.

In vs. 9-10 Paul makes a point of saying that the faith counted as righteousness came before circumcision. He is stressing this because there was a tension in the Roman church between the Jewish believers and the Gentile believers. But also, he is making a distinction between the salvation through faith that runs within the Sinai covenant but is nevertheless distinct.

Romans 4:11 "He (Abraham) received the sign of circumcision as a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised."

The circumcision of Abraham as a seal/sign of his faith counted as righteousness before works is not the same thing as the requirement for circumcision in the Sinai Covenant.

Gen 17:10-11 "This is my covenant---Every male among you shall be circumcised--it is a sign of the covenant." It identifies membership in Israel and is obligatory under the law. Now Paul is distinguishing between the Abrahamic promise and the later law. The two are related but they are not identical functions.

This was serving a particular purpose. Romans 4:11 The purpose was to make him the father of all who believe without being circumcised, so that righteousness would be counted to them as well."

That faith came before the sign when God was speaking with Abraham, and that the later same sign of circumcision was given as law to Abraham's descendants who inherited the promised land is significant. It keeps the first active (justification by faith) while the second is serving its purpose.

Verse 12 "And to make him the father of the circumcised who are not merely circumcised, but who also walk in the footsteps of the faith--" Abraham is the father of the uncircumcised believers and the father of circumcised believers.

Verse 13 "The promise to Abraham---did not come through the law but through the righteousness of faith."

The promise is received through righteousness by faith." It has been said that this was not a covenant because promises are not covenants. True not all promises are covenants, but when God promises something to a covenantal people, he is a covenantally bound to that promise. Of course, the claim was made to keep national Israel distinct from the church in eschatology, but we will get to that in a bit. The promise is guaranteed to all Abraham's offspring. Romans 4:16 "That is why it depends on faith---to guarantee it to all his offspring---not only to the adherent of the law but also to the one who shares the faith of Abraham."

Abraham's family is expanded in Paul's argument. It is not physical descent alone but faith like Abraham's. The promise extends beyond national borders and ethnicity. It is centered in Christ (Gal 3:16).

Abraham is not merely the father of one nation, but of all who believe. The promise was never grounded in law circumcision or ethnicity---but in faith.

That promise finds its fulfillment in Christ
He is the true seed.
And all who are in him are heirs--not by blood, not by law, but by faith.

There is something to say about a consistent hermeneutic. There is only one author to the Bible. As such, there is one purpose, not multiple. One context, not many. An unfolding and a progressive revelation.

Paul is not linking justification by faith to any covenant in Romans 4. He is dealing with the ideas/teachings of the judaizers for those in the Roman church. Justification is by faith. The Jews were first, and they are a covenanted people. So what about the Gentiles? Paul's response is basically, "so what about the Gentiles?" Yeah, what about them? Paul basically says, consider Abraham, the cornerstone of all of this. Abraham was justified by faith outside of the covenant, because the covenant didn't even exist yet. As such, the Gentiles can also be justified by faith outside of the covenant, using Abraham as their prime example. As such, Abraham was the first of those who would believe by faith outside of the covenant. That is all we need. Everything else is Paul dealing with arguments against such an idea, and expounding upon the idea. Paul is not linking justification by faith to any covenant, let alone the Abrahamic.

Hence there are two groups of people. The Jews, who are physical descendants of Abraham and are in the covenant, and believing Gentiles, who are not physical descendants of Abraham, outside of/strangers to the covenants, but whom God says are spiritual descendants of Abraham who is the first justified by faith outside of the covenant. So Paul speaks to the distinction that exists between Jews and Gentiles. To this, there is an intersection. That is, those Jews who are physical descendants of Abraham by birth/ethnicity, and those who are also spiritual descendants of Abraham by faith. As such, there are three main groups, the nation of Israel, the Israel of God, and the church. The nation of Israel is made up of all physical descendants of Abraham. The Israel of God are those of the nation of Israel who are of Israel, that is, they are both physical and spiritual descendants of Abraham. The elect remnant of the nation of Israel, elect to faith in Christ. Then there is the church, which is made up of both Gentiles, and believing Jews.

I see two inheritances. One, specifically for the Jews due to their history with God, and promised/covenanted by God. The Gentiles have no such history with God. It is through the Abrahamic covenant, and the seal for their inheritance is their circumcision, the sign of the covenant. I see this as a temporal inheritance, in that the covenants will see their fulfillment prior to the New Heavens and New Earth. The fulfillment is seen in the messianic kingdom, where the land promise of the covenant, the Davidic covenant, and the covenant of the Levites will be fulfilled prior to the consummation of all. (The end of the temporal age.)

The other inheritance is for the church made up of believing Jews and Gentiles, and that is an eternal inheritance in Christ. It is not temporal, it is eternal. It is spoken of in Ephesians 1. The Holy Spirit is the down payment of that inheritance until we take material possession. The Holy Spirit is the sign of the one to whom the inheritance will be given through the new covenant, not Abrahamic.

In response to the promise made to Abraham not being a promise but covenanted, the promise specifically speaks against this. God's first words is that He swears by His own name. Clearly a vow/oath sworn in His own name. That is not a covenant. Everything God speaks to is an extension of the covenant. So Abraham has a covenant, but INDEED God will multiply all of that, and more then that, in his seed, the nations of the world will be blessed. So, not the covenant, not part of the covenant, but a promise that expands upon what God promised in the covenants. If this were a part of the covenant, then no Gentiles could be saved. Why? It would put justification by faith within the covenant.

 

[Bruiser]

I have seen on this forum where v.5 "And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness." removed from all context and used as support for eternal justification. That is, that the elect are justified legally at the cross before they come to faith. In its context, the scripture the emphasis is on how one is justified not when---through faith, not apart from it.

We're Justified through Faith Alone. The Cross is God's Grace for Us. We were Condemned already (Original Sin), thus there was no Justification...

Sola Fide...

 

[Arial]

We're Justified through Faith Alone. The Cross is God's Grace for Us. We were Condemned already (Original Sin), thus there was no Justification...

Sola Fide...

If you are saying that we are not justified until we come to Christ through faith, then I agree. Eternal justification says we were justified before the fundation of the world. Conflating election and justification.

 

[Bruiser]

If you are saying that we are not justified until we come to Christ through faith, then I agree. Eternal justification says we were justified before the fundation of the world. Conflating election and justification.

THAT'S gotta be Hyper...