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Six Problems Inherent in Dispensationalism, Part 2: The Resulting Hypocrisy

Josheb

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Dispensationalism is overtly inconsistent in practice. To be hypocritical is to say one thing and do the opposite, or to assert a standard and then not practice it. This happens in multiple ways with Dispensational Premillennialism.

For example, one of the core tenets of Dispensationalism is the belief scripture should be read literally. Sometimes this is qualified to say prophecy, not all scripture, is to be read literally. The problems arising from this position are that the rules of correct biblical exegesis have been long-held and well-established by nearly everyone in Christendom no matter their respective theology or eschatology or other doctrinal views. The literal reading of scripture is a basic tenet of exegesis but that rule does not apply to ALL scripture, especially not prophecy since prophecy is often one of the most figurative and/or allegorical literary genres. As a consequence, Dispensationalism's requirement for literal reading ignores centuries of Christian thought, doctrine, and practice, but another problem arises because Dispensationalists do not actually read all prophecy literally, and they openly criticize others when they practice literal reading! Not only is literalism not practiced consistently despite the self-asserted emphasis on literalism, and not only is there inherently contradictory criticism of those who do practice literalism where Dispensationalists do not, but there is also enormous inconsistency between the imminent prognostications constantly being asserted and the fact rarely do any Dispensationalists act is if their own claims are actually true! They say the world is coming to an end any day now but they do not actually act as if that is true.

In regard to the emphasis on literalism, the Dispensational Hermeneutic (pdf file) states a word should be “given the same meaning it would have in normal usage.” In Dispensationalism this is often applied to OT prophecy but not NT prophecy. Neither is it applied to NT renderings of the OT. For example, Dispensationalists take literally the promise of a Davidic throne found in 2 Samuel 7 but they do not take literally Peter’s statements in Acts 2 about that promise. Another example of this inconsistency is when they use the word “near” to mean near but do not read scripture's use of "near" to mean near. They say, “The building of the temple is near,” but they do not give God’s use of the word “near,” in Revelation the same meaning it would have in normal usage. The word “near,” literally mean near in time or space.

Then when a non-Dispensationalist Christian does read verses or passages literally, they expose themselves to criticism by Dispensationalists and that criticism in often rude, disrespectful and sometime profane. I have even had my salvation called into question when I post a literal reading of scripture.

Robert Fitzpatrick was a man who spent over $140,000 on billboards and other advertisements to proclaim the gospel leading up to the return of Jesus on May 21, 2011 according to the predictions made by Harold Camping. No matter what anyone here thinks of Camping, Mr. Fitzpatrick acted with integrity; he acted in a manner consistent with his own beliefs. He acted in a manner consistent with the Dispensational Premillennial teaching he had received. He genuinely believed he was not going to be around to spend his wealth, so he spent it on that which was important to him: the gospel. Scores of people have behaved in like manner due to the Dispensational Premillennialist eschatology they were taught. They all lost their money foolishly and no one in DP leadership ever apologized or compensated any of them.

If a person truly believes they will raptured off of the planet next week, next month, next year, within the next decade or two then there is little sense in paying a mortgage, saving money for retirement, or investing in profitability of future stocks. That person will not be around to spend that wealth if what they believe to be true is in fact true. Therefore, every single Dispensationalist who believes in a soon-occurring rapture but acts in a manner inconsistent with that belief is acting with hypocrisy. Ironically, Dispensational Premillennialism also explicitly asserts the Church is corrupt and actively anticipates false teachers in the future, particularly as the millennium approaches but 1) it fosters an enormous number of teachers who teach falsely and 2) it does nothing to change this practice. More often than not those decrying false teachers are false teachers.

In other words, there are numerous conditions wherein Dispensationalism fosters objectively observable hypocrisy, where the Dispensationalist practices that which s/he reports to eschew or disdain.


No other eschatology has these problems!


From an article at Christianity Today on John Darby.

What separated Darby's dispensationalism was his novel method of biblical interpretation, which consisted of a strict literalism, the absolute separation of Israel and the church into two distinct peoples of God, and the separation of the rapture (the 'catching away' of the church) from Christ's Second Coming. At the rapture, he said, Christ will come for his saints; and at the Second Coming, he will come with his saints.”​

How many Dispensationalists do you know currently planning to liquidate their IRAs before the Rapture?
 
Also within the text of Revelation they are highly inconsistent with being literal. They do not think grasshoppers are really grasshoppers, instead they are Blackhawk helicopters. The beast is not a beast according to the literal definition of beast. Etc. And yet,when they want to the chains that bind Satan are literal chains, a key is a literal key.
 
Also within the text of Revelation they are highly inconsistent with being literal. They do not think grasshoppers are really grasshoppers, instead they are Blackhawk helicopters. The beast is not a beast according to the literal definition of beast. Etc. And yet, when they want to the chains that bind Satan are literal chains, a key is a literal key.
Yep. They're all over the place. One glaring example is all the rank speculation trying to identify the beast's mark. If the text is read literally the mark is a mark. Literally! (now watch: Dispies will derail the thread and start arguing about the mark instead of addressing the hypocrisy). I'm planning on addressing some of the exegetical/hermeneutical and doctrinal problems in a separate op but, for now, this op is about the hugely inconsistency between what is taught and what is practiced. We do not find anyone else, any other theological perspective, with these kinds of problems.
 
For example, one of the core tenets of Dispensationalism is the belief scripture should be read literally. Sometimes this is qualified to say prophecy, not all scripture, is to be read literally. T
This is not correct.

Yes, scripture should be taken literally....there will be a 1000 year reign of Christ in the prophetic future....but sometimes scripture should be taken as figurative or allegorically. For example Rev 2: 1“To the angel of the church in Ephesus write:

These are the words of Him who holds the seven stars in His right hand and walks among the seven golden lampstands.

Here lampstands is a representation.
In other words, there are numerous conditions wherein Dispensationalism fosters objectively observable hypocrisy, where the Dispensationalist practices that which s/he reports to eschew or disdain.

You speak of this a s a major occurrence...as if it happens all the time. The pre-trib rapture is a biblical truth. 2 Thes 2:1-4 speaks of it.
 
Dispensationalism is overtly inconsistent in practice. To be hypocritical is to say one thing and do the opposite, or to assert a standard and then not practice it. This happens in multiple ways with Dispensational Premillennialism.

For example, one of the core tenets of Dispensationalism is the belief scripture should be read literally. Sometimes this is qualified to say prophecy, not all scripture, is to be read literally. The problems arising from this position are that the rules of correct biblical exegesis have been long-held and well-established by nearly everyone in Christendom no matter their respective theology or eschatology or other doctrinal views. The literal reading of scripture is a basic tenet of exegesis but that rule does not apply to ALL scripture, especially not prophecy since prophecy is often one of the most figurative and/or allegorical literary genres.
Seems clear without parables the signified understanding using the temporal historical needed to teach us how to walk by faith the unseen eternal. Christ the teacher master again without spoke not.

Read literal words, rightly divide interpret the parables. They reveal the hidden gospel understanding

Lying wonders as if they were the true prophecy.

Believers have prophecy no need to wonder, suffer, marvel wonder as limbo\ purgatory
 
The pre-trib rapture is a biblical truth. 2 Thes 2:1-4 speaks of it.
That is not correct. It is simply the Dispensational interpretation of the passage, making it fit all the other erroneous interpretations in its teachings.

2 Thess 2:1-4





1Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, 2not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed, either by a spirit or a spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. 3Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, 4who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God.

It says nothing in those verses about a pre-trib rapture. If Thess was written prior to the book of Revelation, and it likely was, the recipients would never have interpreted what Paul was saying the way dispensationalists do. As a pre-trib rapture. In fact, Paul had written a prior letter to the same people that would give the a greater understanding of what Paul was saying. In that letter what he says absolutely denies a pre-trib rapture before the coming of the Lord.

1 Thess 4:13-18 But we do not want you to be uninformed, brothers, about those who are asleep, that you may not grieve as other do who have no hope. For since we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so, through Jesus, God will bring with him those who have fallen asleep. For this we declare to you by a word from the Lord, that we who are alive, who are left until the coming of the Lord, will not precede those who have fallen asleep. For the Lord himself will descend from the heaven with a cry of command, with the voice of an archangel, and with the sound of the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. Then we who are alive, who are left, will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and so we will always be with the Lord. Therefore encourage one another with these words.
 
For example, one of the core tenets of Dispensationalism is the belief scripture should be read literally. Sometimes this is qualified to say prophecy, not all scripture, is to be read literally.
This is not correct.
It is correct. I can quote leading dispensationalist explicitly teaching that position.


I can quote piles of other Dispensationalists teaching DPism teaches a literal reading of scripture. Scroll to page 18 in this pdf of Dwight Pentecost's, "Things to Come," for his exposition on the necessity on the literal reading of scripture. In his article titled, "A Short History of Dispensationalism," leading DP apologist Thomas Ice states,

"In order to be a dispensationalist, one has to hold to a literal approach of interpreting the Bible. When compared to other interpretative approaches, dispensationalists take the text more literally."

In his article on Dispensational Hermeneutics, Ice quotes Ryrie saying,

"Consistently literal or plain interpretation is indicative of a dispensational approach to the interpretation of the Scriptures,” declared Charles Ryrie in 1965. “And it is this very consistency—the strength of dispensational interpretation—that irks the nondispensationalist and becomes the object of his ridicule.”

And in Ice's "What is Dispensationalism?" he states, "First Essential: Literal Interpretation Ryrie’s first essential of dispensationalism is not just literal interpretation, but more fully, a consistent literal hermeneutic."

In his book, "The Millennial Kingdom and the Eternal State," former president of DTS and leading DP proponent John Walvoord repeatedly asserted and defended the literal interpretation position of DPism, stating,

"If the premillennial interpretation is correct and we can understand the Scriptures relating to this kingdom in their normal literal sense, a panorama is unfolded in both the Old and New Testaments which gives us many details of this reign of Christ on earth."

You like to post article by Michael Vlach to me whenever we discuss DPism. HERE is a pdf article by Vlach on Dispensationalism in which cites the standards of Dispensationalism as articulated by the former president of Dallas Theological Seminary (DTS), Charles Ryrie,

"According to Ryrie, Dispensationalism is based on the three following characteristics: (1) a distinction between Israel and the church; (2) literal hermeneutics; and (3) A view which sees the glory of God as the underlying purpose of God in the world."

Vlach also states,

"1. Hermeneutical approach that stresses a literal fulfillment of Old Testament promises to Israel Though the issue of “literal interpretation” is heavily debated today, many dispensationalists claim that consistent literal interpretation applied to all areas of the Bible, including Old Testament promises to Israel, is a distinguishing mark of dispensationalism."


I did not cite a single critic of DPism. I provided a survey of DP teachings in the words of the DPists themselves. Ryrie, Walvoord, Ice, and Vlach are all leading DP apologists. The references I just provided cover the last 120 years of Dispensational Premillennialism teaching on how scripture should be read. You may disagree with what they teach, and you may still consider yourself a Dispensational Premillennialist, but the fact Dispensationalism teaches a literal interpretation of scripture cannot be denied.






So.......


Before we proceed any further with the rest of Post #4, will you now plainly acknowledge that Dispensational Premillennialism does, in fact teach scripture, especially prophecy, is to be read literally as one of its core tenets?



A direct, immediate, explicit, simple, "Yes," or "No" is all that question requires. It's best if you post "Yes," because Post #4 is a result of you disputing "Dispensationalism is absurd" and my inviting you to my ops on DPism and if you deny the facts in evidence just posted then you show Dispensationalism is absurd by the mere fact Dispensationalists live a life denying their own teachings, which I wrote about HERE and HERE. By acknowledging the evidence above you stand out as a Dispensationalist who will at least acknowledge historical fact and maintain some degree of personal integrity. Dispensationalism teaches a literal reading of scripture, a "literal interpretation," a literal hermeneutic.
This is not correct.
It is correct and I do not want to spend a gazillion posts asking you to acknowledge that fact.
 
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Seems clear without parables the signified understanding using the temporal historical needed to teach us how to walk by faith the unseen eternal. Christ the teacher master again without spoke not.

Read literal words, rightly divide interpret the parables. They reveal the hidden gospel understanding

Lying wonders as if they were the true prophecy.

Believers have prophecy no need to wonder, suffer, marvel wonder as limbo\ purgatory
Dispensational Premillennialism


This op is explicitly and specifically about the problem of hypocrisy within Dispensational Premillennialism. This thread is not about any other eschatological point of view. This thread is not about comparative eschatology. This thread is not about your personal views or my personal views or anyone else's personal views on anything other than the hypocrisy inherent in Dispensational Premillennialism's teaches and its practices. Please limit the posts contents to that topic. Thank you.



And you watch because @CrowCross will try to steer this thread away from that topic.
 
1Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, 2not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed, either by a spirit or a spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. 3Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, 4who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God.
For that day will not come, unless the DEPARTURE comes first,
 
It says nothing in those verses about a pre-trib rapture. If Thess was written prior to the book of Revelation, and it likely was, the recipients would never have interpreted what Paul was saying the way dispensationalists do. As a pre-trib rapture. In fact, Paul had written a prior letter to the same people that would give the a greater understanding of what Paul was saying. In that letter what he says absolutely denies a pre-trib rapture before the coming of the Lord.
The verse...or should I say the chapter speaks of the gathering....the departure that happens prior to the anti-christ being reveled.
 
The verse...or should I say the chapter speaks of the gathering....the departure that happens prior to the anti-christ being reveled.
Now, respond the my entire post.
 
Yes, scripture should be taken literally....
For that day will not come, unless the DEPARTURE comes first,
Let's see what the verse literally states.

Berean Literal Translation
No one should deceive you in any way, because it is not until the apostasy shall have come first, and the man of lawlessness shall have been revealed--the son of destruction...

Smith's Literal Translation
Let none deceive you in any manner: for, except an apostasy come first, and the man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition...

Young's Literal Translation
let not any one deceive you in any manner, because -- if the falling away may not come first, and the man of sin be revealed -- the son of the destruction...

New American Standard
No one is to deceive you in any way! For it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction...

English Standard Version
Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction...

King James Version
Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition...

Those are five of the most literal formal English translations of the Greek. Only the Literal Standard Version uses the word "departure."

Greek Transliteration
No one should deceive you not in one way because if not shall come the apostasy first and shall have been revealed the man of lawlessness the son of destruction

The Greek word used there is "apostasia" which, according to Strong's (G646) means "Apostasy, rebellion, defection, falling away, defection, apostasy, and/or revolt. Apostasia is derived from the word aphistemi, which means depart, but that is NOT what the word apostasia means.

Therefore, when you say, "Yes, scripture should be taken literally," and then do not take the scripture literally, then you prove 1) the hypocrisy described in this op is true, the absurdity of Dispensationalism when it teaches its people to read scripture literally and then does not abide by its own tenets, and don't practice what you preach. This absurdity is particularly acute when applied to 2 Thes. 2:3 because the apostasy (or departure) of the verse is conditional!!! The word "unless" makes it the event conditional.


2 Thessalonians 2:1-4
Now we request you, brethren, with regard to the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him, that you not be quickly shaken from your composure or be disturbed either by a spirit or a message or a letter as if from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, who opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, displaying himself as being God.

According to Paul, the day of the Lord will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the lawless man is revealed. If there is no apostasy, then there will be no day of the Lord. That is the literal reading of the text. Any and all attempts to change what is literally states into some other meaning is an example of hypocrisy,, Dispensational absurdity, and your own lack of fidelity with what is literally stated in Post #4. I remind all the other posters here that @CrowCross' participation in this thread comes because he disputed the assertion Dispensationalism is absurd in another thread and was invited to come to one of my criticisms and prove Dispensationalism is not absurd so as not to muck up that thread with digressive content. By disputing this op's content he's trying to prove Dispensationalism is not absurd.

Claiming scripture should be "taken" literally and then not taking 2 Thes. 2:3 literally is absurd. The word apostasia is conjugated five times in the New Testament (Mt. 5:31, Mt. 19:7, Mk. 10:4, Acts 20:30, and Acts 21:21), and not one of them means "taken and removed off of or departing from the planet." Contextually speaking, the apostasia of 2 Thes. 2 is couched in the deceit of the brothers and sisters and the coming of a lawless man. There is absolutely nothing in the entire chapter about anyone departing anything, especially not the planet. Furthermore, by assuring his readers the day of the Lord won't come unless the apostasy comes he's implicitly said they will be around to see that apostasy and the day of the Lord. Not only would the see the lawlessman be revealed, but they'd also see him eliminated because the elimination of the lawlessman comes at the appearing of the Lord's coming.
The verse...or should I say the chapter speaks of the gathering....the departure that happens prior to the anti-christ being reveled.
There is absolutely no mention of any antichrist in 2 Thessalonians 2.
Yes, scripture should be taken literally....
Well then take it literally because when you do not do so you prove the absurdity of Dispensational Premillennialism!
 
I don't see the word departure in there.
Let no man deceiue you by any meanes: for that day shall not come, except there come a departing first, and that that man of sinne be disclosed, euen the sonne of perdition, Geneva bible 1587

There is a reason why they used the word departing...

According to Paul, the day of the Lord will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the lawless man is revealed. If there is no apostasy, then there will be no day of the Lord. That is the literal reading of the text. Any and all attempts to change what is literally states into some other meaning is an example of hypocrisy,

So, apostasy...just what does the word mean?

The meaning of the word refers to ... "to stand away" or "to depart." I copied that directly from Strongs 646. apostasia

The question is....does depart mean a spiritual departure or a physical spatial departure? Or can it refer to BOTH?

Concerning a physical departure the word apostasia is derived from the word aphistémi. Acts 12:10 uses this word as follows
"and they went out, and passed on through one street; and forthwith the angel departed from him." This departure wasn't a spiritual departure but rather a physical departure.

Considering the make up of the word can refer to both a spiritual or physical departure we need to look at the subject or text of 2 Thes 2.

But first, will you agree the word can refer to a spiritual departure or a physical spatial departure.
 
Let no man deceiue you by any meanes: for that day shall not come, except there come a departing first, and that that man of sinne be disclosed, euen the sonne of perdition, Geneva bible 1587

There is a reason why they used the word departing...
I am sure there is a reason and when someone has the capability of penetrating the operation of another's mind, particularly of those long dead, they can tell me what that reason was.

There is also a reason why it is not used.
biblehub.com/interlinear/2_thessalonians/2.htm

Because it isn't there.
 
I have. There is no problem with dispensationalism and the premillennial rapture of the Church.
Not so. You completely neglected the 1 Thess passage in the post that shows your interpretation of 2 Thess presents Paul as contradicting himself.
 
So, apostasy...just what does the word mean?

The meaning of the word refers to ... "to stand away" or "to depart." I copied that directly from Strongs 646. apostasia

The question is....does depart mean a spiritual departure or a physical spatial departure? Or can it refer to BOTH?

Concerning a physical departure the word apostasia is derived from the word aphistémi. Acts 12:10 uses this word as follows
"and they went out, and passed on through one street; and forthwith the angel departed from him." This departure wasn't a spiritual departure but rather a physical departure.

Considering the make up of the word can refer to both a spiritual or physical departure we need to look at the subject or text of 2 Thes 2.

But first, will you agree the word can refer to a spiritual departure or a physical spatial departure.
No, I will not agree to that.

As I have already posted, there is not a single example in the entire New Testament where apostasia ever means physical removal from any physical space. In other words, the "physical spatial departure" interpretation would be an interpretation that has absolutely no precedent in scripture. It is an interpretation that is, therefore, chosen in complete disregard to the whole of scripture itself. That is not reading scripture literally!!!

What the Dispensationalist has done is....

  • Verse A means a dispositional falling away.
  • Verse B means a dispositional falling away.
  • Verse C means a dispositional falling away.
  • Verse D means a dispositional falling away.
  • Verse E means THE physical spatial departure and all prior uses of the word have absolutely no bearing whatsoever on Verse E.

It is absurd.


Not only does the Dispensationalist make irrelevant all the prior uses of the word, apostasia, but as I have already posted, the people of Thessalonica are said to witness and experience all that is described in the passage. They cannot experience any of it if they are physically spatially departed. In other words, the physical spatial departure interpretation contradicts everything else said in the larger passage.

It is absurd.

Not only does the Dispensationalist deny the relevance of prior use and make apostasia contradict everything else said in the text, they make 2 Thes. 2:3 contradict the other mentions of physical spatial departure that co-occur with the second coming. On top of that the passage explicitly states the apostasia is conditional, not inevitable. If 2 Thes. 2:3's apostasia is conditional and might not happen then Dispensational Premillennialism teaches the rapture is only a possibility, not a necessity or inevitability. But we all know that is not how Dispensationalism teaches the apostasia of 2 Thes. 2:3. The Christians will be taken away (not fall away), physically gathered and removed from the planet and that's not just a possibility. This is one of the core, foundational differences between Dispensational Premillennialism and all the other eschatological viewpoints. It contradicts 2000 years of Christian thought, doctrine, and practice.

It is absurd.


And when it comes to claims of reading scripture literally it becomes hypocrisy. Dispensationalists do NOT actually read 2 Thes. 2:3 literally, even as they claim to do. They add interpretations to words and sentences that cannot possibly exist if the words are read as written with their normal meaning in ordinary usage. The interpretations added are all eisegetic, that is they are made to fit the doctrine, not the doctrine made to fit the literal meaning of the words. Dispensationalism makes its adherents hypocrites, and it does so in ways no other eschatology does, and to degrees no other eschatology does.

Lastly, what you've done is dodge the question asked, even though I expressly stated I did not want to have ask that question multiple times. The question was ignored and not answered, and in avoidance of an answer, you asked your own without setting an example for others to follow. No parity was provided. You want me to answer your questions even though you refuse to answer mine.

It is absurd and it is hypocritical.

So, I remind you: you are supposed to be proving Dispensational Premillennialism is not hypocritical or absurd and with every single post the op is proven correct. You have got to work harder if this op is going to be disproven.
 
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No, I will not agree to that.
{edited for insult} I provided you with examples.

You have not shown where it MUST mean "spiritual" rather than "physical".
  • Verse A means a dispositional falling away.
  • Verse B means a dispositional falling away.
  • Verse C means a dispositional falling away.
  • Verse D means a dispositional falling away.
  • Verse E means a physical spatial departure and all prior uses of the word have absolutely no bearing whatsoever on Verse E.
The verse doesn't speak of "a" departure but rather "THE" departure. Go re-check your bible.

The anti-christ is also presented as " the man of lawlessness—the son of destruction—is revealed."

Both speak of a specific event in time.

Spiritual departures have happened many times before. What you need to do is show that the departure...or falling away as you've mistranslated it is a single event.

Not so. You completely neglected the 1 Thess passage in the post that shows your interpretation of 2 Thess presents Paul as contradicting himself.
Where is the contradiction?

For both of you....
2 Thes 2 starts out with.....1 Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to Him,.....which is a reference to the rapture.....the departure when we are gathered together....then the antichrist will be exposed.
 
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This is not correct.
It is correct and demonstrably so. I provided multiple Dispensational Premillennial sources explictly stating literal interpretation is a core tenet of of DPism.
The pre-trib rapture is a biblical truth. 2 Thes 2:1-4 speaks of it.
@ Thes. 2:3 is the verse you chose and it's been proven you don't read that verse literally. You, instead, add a definition to the word "apostasia" that is entirely different than the uniform usage of all other verses containing the word.

I am going to give you a few examples where DPists do nt read the verse literally.


Matthew 24:9
Then they will deliver you to tribulation, and will kill you, and you will be hated by all nations because of my name.

Pre-tribulational DPism teaches the saints will not be present during the great tribulation but this verse explicitly, literally, states the disciples will be handed over to tribulation. Some Dpists try to avoid this contradiction by saying the verse refers to a general tribulation and not the great tribulation. Contradictions result from that non-literal interpretation because just a few verses later in the exact same teaching of Jesus the following is stated...

Matthew 24:21-22
For then there will be a great tribulation, such as has not occurred since the beginning of the world until now, nor ever will. Unless those days had been cut short, no life would have been saved; but for the sake of the elect those days will be cut short.

The days are cut short for the sake of the elect. If the elect aren't on the planet anymore then there is not risk to them. Therefore, now the DPist must change the meaning of two verse, not one. On top of that, Revelation 1:9 reads,

Revelation 1:9
I, John, your brother and fellow partaker in the tribulation and kingdom and perseverance which are in Jesus, was on the island called Patmos because of the word of God and the testimony of Jesus.

John explicitly stated he was partaking in the tribulation. John was, as Jesus stated in his Olivet Discourse, handed over to tribulation. Here again the DPist will say that tribulation is not the great tribulation. The problem, again, is this leads to more contradictions. There are only three verses in the entire New Testament that use the exact words, "great tribulation." One of them is Matthew 24:21 and the other two are Revelation 2:22 and 7:14.

Revelation 2:22
Behold, I will throw her on a bed of sickness, and those who commit adultery with her into great tribulation, unless they repent of her deeds.

Revelation 7:14
I said to him, "My lord, you know." And he said to me, "These are the ones who come out of the great tribulation, and they have washed their robes and made them white in the blood of the Lamb.

The latter verse definitely reports saints going through the great tribulation if read literally. But DPists do not read the verse literally. They attach meanings to all of these verses to explain away what is literally stated so that the verses fit their doctrine. They bend scripture to doctrine, not doctrine to scripture, and they claim to read scripture literally when they, in fact, do not.

here's another example:

Revelation 1:3
Blessed is he who reads and those who hear the words of the prophecy, and heed the things which are written in it; for the time is at hand.

Notice I did not use the word "near." The Greek is "engys" which literally means "at hand" and the phrase "at hand" literally means "close in time, about to happen." So here we have an inspired writer of God's revelation explicitly stating what he is about to describe happening close in time, about to happen. That does not fit with Dispensational Premillennialism so the meaning of engys is changed. And just as you have done with the apostasia of 2 Thes. 2:3, there isn't a single example in the entire New Testament where engys is used to mean some period of time thousands of years later. Therefore, not only does the DPist change the meaning of the word engys in Revelation 1:3, but the meaning they give it nowhere else found in the entire New Testament.

It's considerably ironic because John later provided a qualifier to the engys.

Revelation 1:19
Therefore, write the things which you have seen, and the things which are, and the things which will take place after these things.

  • Things that John had seen,
  • Things which are,
  • Things which will take place after the tings John had already seen and the things that then already existed.
In other words, it is only the things that will take place after what has already occurred that is at hand, but many DPists often fail to correctly parse the verses of Revelation to discern which portions have already occurred and which were at hand when John wrote Revelation. Some, like John MacArthur and Gary Hamrick don't make those mistakes (although Mac is very inconsistent. We see this in their teaching because they both teach the letters to the seven churches were about events that occurred in the first century. The problem with that is one of the three verses explicitly mentioning the great tribulation is in a letter to the seven churches 😯. They have created a contradiction by saying the great tribulation is in the far distant future and the church Thyatira experienced the great tribulation in the first century.

In other words, they did not read the text literally with any consistency.

Lastly, the only place in the entire Bible that mentions the millennium is the 1000 years of Revelation 20. There isn't a single verse in the entire book of Revelation that explicitly states Jesus is physically on the earth prior to or during the millennium. Not one. In the book of Revelation Jesus does not come to earth until chapters 21-22. Everything that occurs up to those chapters is said to have been commanded from heaven. Dispensationalists infer a physical earthly presence. It must be inferred because it is not literally stated anywhere in Revelation. They do NOT read the text literally.

One of the core tenets of Dispensational Premillennialism's is that scripture be read literally.

Dispensational Premillennialists practice that tenet selectively, not consistently. If scripture were literally read literally with uniformity - uniform application of that precept - then Dispensational Premillennialism becomes impossible to support. Dispensational Premillennialism makes hypocrites of all its adherents. It teaches them a rule that cannot be wholly practiced. It teaches them to defend this absurdity with more absurdity.

I listed only six verses. There are hundreds of them where DPists do NOT read scripture literally. It is particularly absurd because the rules for properly exegeting scripture are well established and they have never required a literal reading of all scripture and, when practiced with consistency, they avoid the problems the Dispensational hermeneutic creates.

So now the opportunity avails you: either acknowledge the literal meaning of a literal reading of these verses or demonstrate for all the readers how you do not practice what the Dispensational Premillennialism's hermeneutic teaches and hypocrisy is an inherent result of DPism. The minute you try to defend the DPist view of any of these verses you've proved the op correct.
 
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