Not sure what you are trying to argue, here, that the Jews are God's chosen people. They are. But that is not the point of Romans chapter 9. It concludes with:
What I am trying to argue against is your re-interpretation of Romans 9. The verse explicitly is referring to Ishmael and Isaac, and then in mid-stream you insert Gentiles for Ishmael and change the meaning of the text to a contraption of Jew against Gentile. And your understanding of Gentile is incorrect when you change it.
Do you know covenant history? How about Jewish history, specifically when Cyrus gave Nehemiah permission to return to their homeland and rebuild their nation. It's quite simple. It's a Jewish covenant and a Jewish Messiah. At the Feast of Harvest (Pentecost) and as per the New Covenant described in Jeremiah the Covenant is between God and the House of Israel (Jer. 32:31-34.) There are no Gentiles named, mentioned, or included in the New Covenant in Jeremiah. It is between the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob and the House of Israel.
What is your understanding of "remnant" because that's the measure of Jews that did return to Israel as prophesied by Isaiah and Jeremiah. What do you think? 10% is a remnant? I think that's a fair assumption. This means roughly 90% or the majority of Jews remained in Babylon and in Gentile lands in between. With the destruction of the First Jewish Temple the Jews centered their religion around their Feasts. They continued in their religion of the Law of Moses which God required Jewish males to celebrate all their Feasts and Holy Days at Jerusalem. This means that at the Feast of Harvest in Acts 2 there were many more visitors to Jerusalem than there were 'homegrown' citizens at this Feast.
Matthew records Jesus stating that He was to build His Church. Now, when He did this the Church was an outgrowth of the Church in the desert at the time of the Tabernacle with Moses. Only then were they called "Great Congregation." A great congregation of about 4 million Hebrews all situated around the Tabernacle. Twelve tribes. From a mountain top Scripture records Balaam looking down into the Jordan valley and seeing wall to wall Hebrews:
5 He sent messengers therefore unto Balaam the son of Beor to Pethor, which is by the river of the land of the children of his people, to call him, saying, Behold, there is a people come out from Egypt:
behold, they cover the face of the earth, and they abide over against me:
Num. 22:5.
Christ promised to build His Church and He began building it with the recorded in Acts 2 new birth salvation of 3000 Jews on the day of this Jewish Feast. The majority of Jews in Jerusalem on this Feast day is staggering. You also quote Saul in Rom. 9:27 who in turn is quoting Isaiah 10:22 which Isaiah says:
22 For though thy people Israel be as the sand of the sea, Yet a remnant of them shall return:
Isaiah 10:22.
Do you see anything wrong or different with Saul's quoting of Isaiah in his Roman letter at 9:27? In case you don't see it, I will tell you. Saul changes the word in the original prophecy of Isaiah 10:22 from "
remnant" to "
saved" in Rom. 9:27 which completely changes Isaiah's prophecy. Now, if the Holy Spirit wanted Isaiah to say "
saved" instead of "
remnant" then Isaiah would have said "
saved" and Saul's quoting of Isaiah would be perfect.
Also, along with Saul's letter to Jewish Christians at Rome he attempts to exert his apostolic authority over this fellowship, a fellowship that wasn't established by him, but by others, specifically those that returned to Rome after the Feast of Harvest in Acts 2.
10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and
strangers of Rome,
Jews and proselytes, Acts 2:10.
Anyway, when Saul quotes Isaiah 10:22 he changes a word in Isaiah's prophecy so that now Isaiah's prophecy has a different and new meaning. Now, I know Saul was an apostle of the Lord at the same level of ministry as the OT prophets, but no one has authority to change the Word of God. No one. God issues a curse in Revelation 22:18 to anyone that does this - whether the original context is the prophecies of Revelation of any recorded truth in the whole of Scripture.
Now, back to your handling in the original OP of Romans 9:1-8. Saul brings up "Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel [
meaning Ishmael], which are of Israel [
Abraham]:
Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham,
are they all children:
but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called. That is, They which are the children of the flesh [
Ishmael],
these are not the children of God:
but the children of the promise are counted for the seed [Isaac]." Rom. 9:6–8.
And then in the OP you do what Saul did and change from children of the flesh (Ishmael) and change it to Gentiles. Completely dishonest with the Scripture. Saul is discussing Ishmael and Isaac but here you make the change:
QUOTE: Rom 9:12-13 it was said to her, "THE OLDER SHALL SERVE THE YOUNGER."
And now you're changing Ishmael into Gentiles and Saul is not talking about Gentiles.
Saul goes on to write:
30 What shall we say then? That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith.
31 But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness. 32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;
33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence: and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. Rom. 9:29–33.
There are many references to Gentiles in the New Covenant writings. Here's one instance:
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Rom. 2:14.
The Gentiles mentioned here can only be proselytes and God-Fearers. How do we know? Because hard-core, uncircumcised, non-covenant idol-worshiping Gentiles "
do not by nature things contained in the Law," but circumcised, committed Gentile proselytes and uncircumcised, non-committed God-Fearers do. So, Saul's referencing of "Gentiles" in 9:30 is talking about Gentile proselytes and God-Fearers, not idol-worshiping Roman, Scythian, or Barbarian Gentiles who know nothing about the Law and don't care because they are Gentiles and the middle wall partition - even though it was removed the apostles did not come to that realization until later.
Rom 9:30-31 What shall we say then? That Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness of faith; but Israel, pursuing the law of righteousness, has not attained to the law of righteousness.
His conclusion to the point he was raising, was "That Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have attained to righteousness".
Again, if the context in the NT writings is not referencing "hard-core, uncircumcised, non-covenant, Roman, Scythian, Barbarian - to name a few - Gentiles" then the identity of the Gentiles mentioned are proselytes and God-Fearers. They would be the ones who first heard of Jesus Messiah as they were in attendance in synagogue when the newly born-again Jews returning from Pentecost testified of their experiences in Jerusalem hearing Peter's sermon and being born again by the Holy Spirit of Promise just as Peter said.
Romans 9:30 is the beginning of what is called as Halakah of the Pharisees. It begins the discussion with "What shall we say then" and ends in Romans 11:36. Saul is arguing with himself and once he discusses the subject (bringing in Gentiles) there is a "God forbid" to the course of his prescribed argument, and from there we can see a ruling is forthcoming (Rom. 11:11.)
I am currently writing a book on free will where I argue the point of Romans 9 from the view of the Early Church writings i.e. those who wrote on Romans 9. Showing the passage indeed states "That
Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have attained to righteousness". If you are interested the draft for the book can be found at
https://www.everybodymattersministry.com/downloads/predestination.pdf
Scripture states the Abrahamic Covenant is "everlasting" (Gen. 17:7), the Mosaic Covenant is "forever" (Ex. 31:16), and the New Covenant is made between God and the House of Israel which was temporarily halted with the destruction of the Jewish Temple to bring in Gentiles.
25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.
26
And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written,
There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
27
For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins.
Rom. 11:25–27.
ALL Israel shall be saved.