???. . .meeting yourself coming back?Only if you state you’ll stop assuming.
Would I have to assume what the issue is if you stated it?
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???. . .meeting yourself coming back?Only if you state you’ll stop assuming.
Thanks, AmenFinally, what I find to be one of the strongest arguments about this understanding of v9 and who, then, it was written to/for is this, why would our omniscient, omnipresent God, who knows the end from the beginning, be "longsuffering" towards anyone who He ALREADY KNOWS will never come to saving faith in the Lord Jesus Christ![]()
The ones God is not willing that they perish, them He will grant repentance to in His own time, so that they will acknowledge the truth and be saved 1 Tim 2:4Here are two passages I have trouble with, how would you reconcile them?
2 Peter 3:9 (KJV) The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Matthew 11:25 (KJV) At that time Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes.
If God is not willing that any perish, why does He hide certain things from certain people?
What is the best explanation without there being a contradiction on God's part?
Why do people put chocolate syrup on pancakes when they know automobile transmissions require a petroleum lubricant of higher viscosity?Here are two passages I have trouble with, how would you reconcile them?
2 Peter 3:9 (KJV) The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Matthew 11:25 (KJV) At that time Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes.
If God is not willing that any perish, why does He hide certain things from certain people?
What is the best explanation without there being a contradiction on God's part?
I just addressed this passage yesterday on Twitter when a Provisionist tried to use it to prove Calvinism is inconsistent with scripture.)
There are a few ways to reconcile this. One way is to understand 2 Peter 3:9 as referring to the Church; the Born Again Believer, the Unconditional Elect. Another way, is to use Covenant Theology as a Hermeneutic. Jesus was speaking and functioning under the Old Covenant when he spoke in Mathew 11:25, but Saint Peter wrote while under the New Covenant. For instance; Saint Peter denied knowing Christ while under the Old Covenant, not while under the New Covenant. - So Jesus was glad that God hid Revelation from the Wise, because he (and the Law) are Legalistic. God revealed it to Babes (Children of God, the Elect, Spiritual Israel, Babes in Christ, etc). But Jesus Kept the Law, so this means he Loves his Neighbor; IE the World. He died for the World...Here are two passages I have trouble with, how would you reconcile them?
2 Peter 3:9 (KJV) The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Matthew 11:25 (KJV) At that time Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes.
If God is not willing that any perish, why does He hide certain things from certain people?
What is the best explanation without there being a contradiction on God's part?
There's religious discussions on Twitter?
I don't know what that means, but just in case... holds up crucifix, sprinkles holy water —back! Get back!On mine, yes. I've got the algorithm carefully curated.