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If Adam and Eve were a product of "evolutionism"....when, how and why did mankind fall?

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It most certainly does. God made Adam and Eve good. That necessarily means their flesh was not sinful. Later, as has already been proven, the flesh is called sinful. Adam's flesh went from being good and sinless flesh to hostile and sinful flesh.
I think that you are positing far too much Gnosticism into the scriptures with statements like that. In fact, I believe the typical rendering of Romans 8:3 places far too much Gnosticism into the scriptures. I think the interpretation of the Greek word sarx here is not so much calling out the flesh but rather the man, the human being. Jesus came to us as a human being with flesh and blood. It is the man that is sinful. When Adam sinned, nothing about his flesh, per se, changed. Adam changed only in the sense that he became a sinner.
 
Hey y’all
I think that you are positing far too much Gnosticism into the scriptures with statements like that. In fact, I believe the typical rendering of Romans 8:3 places far too much Gnosticism into the scriptures. I think the interpretation of the Greek word sarx here is not so much calling out the flesh but rather the man, the human being. Jesus came to us as a human being with flesh and blood. It is the man that is sinful. When Adam sinned, nothing about his flesh, per se, changed. Adam changed only in the sense that he became a sinner.
They argue that Adam’s flesh changed because they want to claim Christ had the same flesh that Adam had before he sinned.
They make void much of scripture in claiming such.
Jesus is called the son of David according to the flesh.
IOW, the same flesh David had, Christ had.
One who does not have sinful flesh does not sin, period. Adam sinned.
 
"Apart from the law" means "in absence of law; where no law exists". The law here is not just the Law of Moses, but any law of God.
That is incorrect. The context is sins reign from Adam to Moses. Lawfully speaking that would be "sin reigned from the time the cultural mandate was disobeyed until the time the Law of Moses was given. There has never been a time when the law of sin and death (if you sin then you die) has not been in effect.
 
That is incorrect. The context is sins reign from Adam to Moses. Lawfully speaking that would be "sin reigned from the time the cultural mandate was disobeyed until the time the Law of Moses was given. There has never been a time when the law of sin and death (if you sin then you die) has not been in effect.
But there is the time in every persons life when sin did not reign. Sin does not reign in the child too young to even know and understand that there even is a God. If you thought your newborn child, if you had one, was sinful that is pathetic.
 
I think that you are positing far too much Gnosticism into the scriptures with statements like that. In fact, I believe the typical rendering of Romans 8:3 places far too much Gnosticism into the scriptures. I think the interpretation of the Greek word sarx here is not so much calling out the flesh but rather the man, the human being. Jesus came to us as a human being with flesh and blood. It is the man that is sinful. When Adam sinned, nothing about his flesh, per se, changed. Adam changed only in the sense that he became a sinner.
I posted scripture. I did not add "interpretation" to it (like you've repeatedly done). I did not impose Gnostic beliefs everything in the physical realm is inherently evil or of lesser value. Perhaps, like all the scriptures cited, Gnosticism isn't correctly understood. Gnosticism held everything physical was inherently evil or of lesser value. It did not become that way it was that automatically. The spiritual realm was higher, and it alone was of value and the way to God and that realm was by and through knowledge, or gnosis. What I and others have argued is scripture. The flesh was made good and sinless and was completely compatible with knowing God just as God had originally made it, but the flesh became sinful when Adam disobeyed God. I have either quoted or cited scripture that plainly states the flesh God made was good. I didn't add any spin to, Gnostic or otherwise. I have also quoited or cited scripture that comes after Genesis 3 that plainly states the flesh is sinful.

Yes, Jesus did come in flesh and blood, but he came in sinless flesh and blood, not sinful flesh and blood. In him was no sin and he knew no sin. He did not know it cognitively, he did not know it behaviorally, he did not know it ontologically. He was pre-Genesis 3:6-7 flesh and blood, not post-Genesis 3:6-7 flesh and blood. He is the last Adam.




Throughout this discussion I've posted the facts of scripture and most of it has been ignored. The few attempts to prove my presentation of scripture have all proven very flawed and one or two occasions the result was contradictory to your position and affirming of the one I and others have asserted. In other words, problems in both content and method exist in your posts and, therefore, the need to re-examine that case before renewing any effort to criticize the case of others is apparent. Surely you must acknowledge some of what we've posted is correct. If that is true, then there is sufficient evidence to justify re-examination. There's simply no way Romans 5 can be interpreted to say ALL laws were nonexistent and the former Pharisee Paul who constantly quoted the Law in his epistolary was not couched in the Law of Moses. That's completely eisegetic. The word "sarx" means flesh and the word "flesh" means flesh. Denotatively it means the physical flesh or body and connotatively it can mean one's character or nature. According to Genesis 1:31 the everything God made (and that would necessarily include human flesh) was once good but at Genesis 3:6-7 Adam disobeyed God and sin entered the world with such an overwhelmingly adverse effect that thereafter the flesh is never again called good. It is called sinful. Gnosticism, in contrast, held the sin was automatically, inherently, BY NATURE FUNDAMENTALLY AND INEXTRICABLY evil. It was never good and nothing in this earthly realm could ever be good. Look it up.
 
That is incorrect. The context is sins reign from Adam to Moses. Lawfully speaking that would be "sin reigned from the time the cultural mandate was disobeyed until the time the Law of Moses was given. There has never been a time when the law of sin and death (if you sin then you die) has not been in effect.
The law of sin and death does not mean “if you sin then you die”. It means “In Adam all have sinned and therefore all die”
“In Christ all shall be made alive”
Thing is, all are naturally in Adam, but none a naturally in Christ.
 
You claim Adam’s flesh wasn’t sinful until after he sinned????
Nope. Posted the exact opposite (see posts 44, 60, 73, 193, and 205). @JIM has been arguing with me over that point ever since. Read the posts again.
You think any rational person would buy that?
JIM does. I think he is wrong, but I also think he is a very rational person, much more rational than someone who, after reading my posts, would think I claim Adam's flesh wasn't sinful after he sinned.
You really think a person who is not sinful sins?
I think you need to re-read the posts and then get back to me with an apology.
I actually believe people are more intelligent than that.
Most are.
 
I posted scripture. I did not add "interpretation" to it (like you've repeatedly done). I did not impose Gnostic beliefs everything in the physical realm is inherently evil or of lesser value. Perhaps, like all the scriptures cited, Gnosticism isn't correctly understood. Gnosticism held everything physical was inherently evil or of lesser value. It did not become that way it was that automatically. The spiritual realm was higher, and it alone was of value and the way to God and that realm was by and through knowledge, or gnosis. What I and others have argued is scripture. The flesh was made good and sinless and was completely compatible with knowing God just as God had originally made it, but the flesh became sinful when Adam disobeyed God. I have either quoted or cited scripture that plainly states the flesh God made was good. I didn't add any spin to, Gnostic or otherwise. I have also quoited or cited scripture that comes after Genesis 3 that plainly states the flesh is sinful.

Yes, Jesus did come in flesh and blood, but he came in sinless flesh and blood, not sinful flesh and blood. In him was no sin and he knew no sin. He did not know it cognitively, he did not know it behaviorally, he did not know it ontologically. He was pre-Genesis 3:6-7 flesh and blood, not post-Genesis 3:6-7 flesh and blood. He is the last Adam.




Throughout this discussion I've posted the facts of scripture and most of it has been ignored. The few attempts to prove my presentation of scripture have all proven very flawed and one or two occasions the result was contradictory to your position and affirming of the one I and others have asserted. In other words, problems in both content and method exist in your posts and, therefore, the need to re-examine that case before renewing any effort to criticize the case of others is apparent. Surely you must acknowledge some of what we've posted is correct. If that is true, then there is sufficient evidence to justify re-examination. There's simply no way Romans 5 can be interpreted to say ALL laws were nonexistent and the former Pharisee Paul who constantly quoted the Law in his epistolary was not couched in the Law of Moses. That's completely eisegetic. The word "sarx" means flesh and the word "flesh" means flesh. Denotatively it means the physical flesh or body and connotatively it can mean one's character or nature. According to Genesis 1:31 the everything God made (and that would necessarily include human flesh) was once good but at Genesis 3:6-7 Adam disobeyed God and sin entered the world with such an overwhelmingly adverse effect that thereafter the flesh is never again called good. It is called sinful. Gnosticism, in contrast, held the sin was automatically, inherently, BY NATURE FUNDAMENTALLY AND INEXTRICABLY evil. It was never good and nothing in this earthly realm could ever be good. Look it up.
You claim that Adam being created very good means his flesh was incapable of sin.
The scripture does not teach that, you do.
Adam was created just the way God wanted. And the way God wanted was very good.
Adam sinned because his flesh was sinful.
People don’t sin if they are not sinful. Period.
 
The law of sin and death does not mean “if you sin then you die”. It means “In Adam all have sinned and therefore all die”
“In Christ all shall be made alive”
At Genesis 2:17 God said, "you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, for when you eat from it you will certainly die." Do you think that command applied only to Adam and Eve?
Thing is, all are naturally in Adam, but none a naturally in Christ.
Adam was once good and sinless.
 
You claim that Adam being created very good means his flesh was incapable of sin.
Never said any such thing. Would you please re-read the posts because your posts are becoming more frequently accusatory and baselessly so? It is not okay to misrepresent others.
 
Nope. Posted the exact opposite (see posts 44, 60, 73, 193, and 205). @JIM has been arguing with me over that point ever since. Read the posts again.

JIM does. I think he is wrong, but I also think he is a very rational person, much more rational than someone who, after reading my posts, would think I claim Adam's flesh wasn't sinful after he sinned.

I think you need to re-read the posts and then get back to me with an apology.

Most are.
You replied to my post were I argued that Adam’s flesh had not changed by saying it did.
 
But there is the time in every persons life when sin did not reign.
Prove it.
Sin does not reign in the child too young to even know and understand that there even is a God.
Prove it.
If you thought your newborn child, if you had one, was sinful that is pathetic.
Fallacious appeal to ridicule noted. Now prove your own claims and stop attacking others for what you think is an incorrect view of God or children. Do it with plainly read scripture, not scripture in which sinlessness is eisegetically assigned.
 
Never said any such thing. Would you please re-read the posts because your posts are becoming more frequently accusatory and baselessly so? It is not okay to misrepresent others.
Adam’s flesh was the same flesh he had before he sinned. When I say his flesh was the same, it means his nature was the same. His nature never changed.
 
Adam’s flesh was the same flesh he had before he sinned.
Yes, but it was not the same type of flesh. Prior to Genesis 3:6-7 it was good, unashamed, and sinless flesh, but after Genesis 3:6-7 it became not good, ashamed (hiding is shame-based behavior), and sinful.
When I say his flesh was the same, it means his nature was the same. His nature never changed.
In that case you're wrong and, again, you need to re-read my posts because I've already provided the scripture proving human flesh changed.
 
Yes, but it was not the same type of flesh. Prior to Genesis 3:6-7 it was good, unashamed, and sinless flesh, but after Genesis 3:6-7 it became not good, ashamed (hiding is shame-based behavior), and sinful.

In that case you're wrong and, again, you need to re-read my posts because I've already provided the scripture proving human flesh changed.
Human flesh sins. Adam sinned. That means his flesh was sinful. Nothing could be more obvious.
 
Adam’s flesh was the same flesh he had before he sinned. When I say his flesh was the same, it means his nature was the same. His nature never changed.
It is the nature of a human being to have flesh, but flesh is not the whole man, and it is not the whole nature of man.
 
Human flesh sins. Adam sinned. That means his flesh was sinful. Nothing could be more obvious.
Did Jesus have human flesh? Did he sin?
 
Adam was sinless until the law. The law became weak by the flesh. The giving of the law exposes the flesh.
Scripture says otherwise.

Romans 5:14
Nevertheless, death reigned from Adam until Moses...

How could sin reign if Adam was sinless?

Romans 5:14b
....even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam....

How could there be a sin in the likeness of Adam if Adam wasn't sinful?

1 Timothy 2:14
And it was not Adam who was deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a wrongdoer.


Adam did not just disobey Genesis 2:17; he also disobeyed Genesis 1:28. Had he obeyed Genesis 1:28 then Genesis 2:17 would never have been disobeyed. It was through one man's disobedience that sin entered the world. Disobedience is sin. Any unrighteousness is sin, anything not done in faith is sin. Adam was unfaithful and acted unrighteously. Adam was sinful before the Law was given, and he was held accountable for his disobedience when God kicked him out of Eden and prohibited him from eating from the tree of life, leaving him to die in sin until God provided his salvation.
 
Did Jesus have human flesh? Did he sin?
Jesus had the same flesh as all of us. If that flesh is called “nature” and that nature is sinful, then Jesus shared it.
He was not made immortal because in Adam all die. When death was pronounced upon Adam and all of his posterity, Jesus was included.
But Jesus never sinned himself. And that’s why God accepted his sacrifice.
 
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