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Let's just say that it is possible for angels (or whatever paranormal beings) are / were indeed able to produce offspring by human wives. How does that imply that Genesis 6 is referring to exactly that? It doesn't.The angels who visited Lot and were desired by the men of the city of Sodom (Gen 19)...
Those angels were physical beings....and being angels also had supernatural abilities.
The angels ate...something a spiritual being can't really do.
The angels were able to grab Lot and bring him into the house...then supernaturally blind the men outside.
Later on the angels seized Lot and his wife and his two daughters by the hand....once again demonstrating physicality.
But as to physical evidence...if Lot cut their hair would their hair have remained after they left?
If the angels stepped in the mud would they not leave footprints?
At best, (if assumed to be possible) it can only show that that is one interpretation available to us. It cannot show that Genesis 6 means what you claim it means.
	