Yes, they must be enabled to believe (on their own or their own belief) instead of changed and given belief (both monergistically).
So do Cals. We simply define "enabled" differently.
Regeneration (and crucifixion) are enablings. Again, the angel is in the details.
And I think a little thought should be put into this because the alternative is God did not foresee any of it. That is going to contradict WCF Article 3 and a pile of other Articles.
Yep. God foresaw His outcome because He monergistically made it so. Again, the problem is one of ambiguity. Arms use identical or similar language but mean entirely different things when doing so. It's like trying to discuss Jesus with a JW or LDS. They use the same word, "Christ" that we do but mean something entirely different. There is no way God did not foresee what God ordained.
That is self-contradictory (or it compromises the premise of omniscience).
No. God can foresee HIS election based on His work.
Again, the same word "
foresee" is used but used with entirely different meaning and if the differences is not noted then it sounds like the two agree.
LOL! If God did not elect an individual, then God could not and would not foresee it.
I completely agree.
I completely agree.
Election is based on foreseen faith, just not foreseen as the Arm defines "foreseen." Election is also based on foreseen faith, just not "faith" as the Arm defines "faith." Election is based on foreseen faith and election AND faith AND election are all monergistic, not synergistic. The angel is in the details. If this is not pointed out to the Arm then they think the Cal is contradicting himself.
Point out the fact the Arminius was an adherent of Augustinian Total Depravity. That first step will split a large portion of self-styled Arms off from the conversation because their protest will prove they aren't actually Arminian; they're Pelagian. Of those accepting Total Depravity (and Arminius' adherence to that doctrine) the logic then necessarily and inescapably defines and limits the will we're debating to a sinful-only will. That will divide a large portion of the remaining Arms because they'll acknowledge the flesh, the mind, and the conduct are all sinful but not the will. That protest will, again, reveal that portion of the self-styled Arms to actually be Pelagian. What remains will acknowledge what we call the "sinful nature" (a term nowhere found in the manuscripts) includes the will, or volition. That then will necessarily lead to the inescapable fact that prevenient moment MUST inescapably and irrefutably change the sinner at a volitional level and NOT merely create a space of objectivity or objective liberty.
God has changed the sinner BEFORE the sinner chooses faith, asserts faith, or professes any faith, and He has done so at the point or level of volition. How was that change made? By grace. By the Spirit. If they're honest and forthcoming
that will be the answer and then the next step is..... regeneration precedes faith. A change in the will, in the mind, in the affect, in the spirit occurs by the Spirit at work
in the sinner, AND it occurs causally for the purpose of that confession.
That's monergism.
The point being that 1) the sinner's will is irrelevant
, and 2) if you walk them through their own language they can be brought to #1.
The sinner's will is irrelevant.
The sinner's will is irrelevant. The premise "
God cannot violate man's will," is a red herring. It sounds reasonable and rational, but it is not; it is utterly fallacious. If and when the red herring is confronted with something like, "
Got scripture for that?" then another fallacy ensues.
Ad hominem
The questions of the op are valid only if the premise on which they are built is valid and it is not. It was your intent to show the premise incorrect, yes?