I have given scripture straight from the KJV bible I did not change any wording but copied and pasted straight from the bible. It is not me saying this but God's holy words you are rebuking and I most likely will be moderated again for defending the truth but it is a chance I have to take to stand on the word of God.
2 Timothy 3:15
And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
What do you have problem with in which I shared?
Do you not accept the scriptures as truth? I did not try to interpret them just post them and let them speak on their own. Where are we in disagreement?
Do not deny that you have a 'take' on what the passages you posted are talking about. You ARE interpreting them. It is unavoidable. You are right now as you read, interpreting what I am saying.
Furthermore, we are all biased, whether we like it or not, whether we admit it or not. What we read, we read into.
If it helps you to get this point, the KJV is not an inspired translation. Even the original 1611 Authorized Version from which the KJV has been made more readable was not an inspired translation. Plenary Verbal Inspiration applies to the original autographs only, of which it is believed that none survive.
But more to the point, language migrates both geographically and evolutionally. From one century, one decade, to the next—even from one year to the next—meaning and usage and pronunciation and habitual application and connotation, and thinking as a result, can change drastically. Take a look at the word, "so", in John 3:16, KJV or otherwise. Some of the more liberal (paraphrase) translations say, "God loved the world so much...", but that isn't what "so" means there. It CAN mean that, but it more easily means, "thus". See also, the use of the subjunctive in the Greek. "God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten Son, that
whosoever believeth in him
might not perish, but have everlasting life." The pair of words, "whosoever", and, "might", in the Greek give no hint of "who knows—it's all up to us.", but rather of
purpose! —"God thus loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son [for the purpose that] everyone believing in him [would] not perish..." is the sense of it, in current English.
You read "what it says", but if you read the surface appearance, you don't know what it says. The 1611 included the 14 books of the Apocrypha which have since been discarded because they, by plain reading, contradict the rest of the Bible —(plain reading or exegeted). And plain reading of the current 66 books will also produce contradictions, (as atheists love to demonstrate).
"What it says" is not "What God says to you". It is what you are taking God to be saying to you. It is no better than those who think to be exegeting by going deep and jumping to conclusions, and feel something in their spirit that speaks to them, and then claim God has opened their eyes and the world needs to hear about it.
I'm hoping that is all you meant, when you said, "God told me"—that you meant you read it in the Bible and you take what you read there seriously. But, if you do take it seriously, then take it linguistically, to any reasonable depth you are capable. Language doesn't work the way you seem to be assuming.
