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Dispensationalism and 7 dispensations.
Maybe the dispensationalist here can help answer a few questions?
As you may or may not know, the New Scofield Bible divides biblical history into seven distinct dispensations.
The definition of dispensation found in the bible is as follows: "A period of time during which man is tested in respect to his obedience to some specific revelation of the will of God."
The editors of the New Scofield Bible do insist that in each dispensation, there is only one basis for salvation. That is, through the work of Christ accomplished on the cross, vindicated in his resurrection. The editors also state that the differences between the dispensations do not concern the way of salvation. Okay so far.
It is true that man in every dispensation needs to be saved by grace, doesn't this imply that man in every dispensation is utterly unable to obey God's will perfectly and thus to save himself through his own efforts?
Why then, does man need to be tested anew in every dispensation (according to the definition of dispensation quoted above)? Wasn't man tested by God in the beginning in the Garden of Eden? Did he not fail that test? And is it not for that reason that salvation through grace is now his only hope?
So, question,
Instead of needing to be repeatedly retested, as dispensationalism implies, does man not rather need to be shown in every era of his existence how he can be delivered from his spiritual impotence and saved by grace?
Maybe the dispensationalist here can help answer a few questions?
As you may or may not know, the New Scofield Bible divides biblical history into seven distinct dispensations.
The definition of dispensation found in the bible is as follows: "A period of time during which man is tested in respect to his obedience to some specific revelation of the will of God."
The editors of the New Scofield Bible do insist that in each dispensation, there is only one basis for salvation. That is, through the work of Christ accomplished on the cross, vindicated in his resurrection. The editors also state that the differences between the dispensations do not concern the way of salvation. Okay so far.
It is true that man in every dispensation needs to be saved by grace, doesn't this imply that man in every dispensation is utterly unable to obey God's will perfectly and thus to save himself through his own efforts?
Why then, does man need to be tested anew in every dispensation (according to the definition of dispensation quoted above)? Wasn't man tested by God in the beginning in the Garden of Eden? Did he not fail that test? And is it not for that reason that salvation through grace is now his only hope?
So, question,
Instead of needing to be repeatedly retested, as dispensationalism implies, does man not rather need to be shown in every era of his existence how he can be delivered from his spiritual impotence and saved by grace?