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Daniel 9

Yes me too. At least we agree there. 😁
What does Jesus mean by the abomination of desolation and who or what is that abomination according to Jesus from the context of Matthew 24 ?
 
What does Jesus mean by the abomination of desolation and who or what is that abomination according to Jesus from the context of Matthew 24 ?

It is the person expected since Dan 8-9 was written who would ruin 1st cent. Israel in a revolt against the 4th power (Rome). This is the standard yeshiva view (rabbinic schools), too (--Josephus). He would agitate for revolt in a ridiculously outnumbered setting. He also seems to have considered himself anointed, and expected God's help to expunge Rome.

Curious thing is 3 people qualify by the time the revolt got thick. Then they fought each other like Jesus said. One prevailed and kept the revolt going.
 
What does Jesus mean by the abomination of desolation and who or what is that abomination according to Jesus from the context of Matthew 24 ?
I’m not going to give you all the answers brother. 😁

Your gonna have to do a little of the footwork also.

But seriously I’ll have more time later today.
 
I see no where Jesus telling us it’s not him. Sorry 😉

Jesus is telling us another person will be the abomination. He is also telling us several people will claim they are Messiah.

On the gender issue (him vs it) it is important to notice that the expression actually begins as the rebellion that desolates in Dan 8:13. That would be the it, but within a few verses there this is personified.
 
Jesus is telling us another person will be the abomination. He is also telling us several people will claim they are Messiah.

On the gender issue (him vs it) it is important to notice that the expression actually begins as the rebellion that desolates in Dan 8:13. That would be the it, but within a few verses there this is personified.
Ditto
 
Rome made no covenant. The grammatical difficulty of the passage is that the antecedent that switches at v27b to the evil figure of 8:13+. I have spent about 40 years looking into things here. Here is a well-navigated translation that keeps Messiah, Rome and the evil person distinct as intended:
Where did Rome come from? I believe the prince is the antichrist, and that what is spoken of in the 70th week is the time of Jacob's trouble, or the Great Tribulation. (Which is the last 3 1/2 weeks of the tribulation). Call it a multiple fulfillment prophecy, just like some (many?) of the prophecies of the first coming were. Jesus says that it will be a time that has no equal, either before or after, in the sheer violence. He also said that if the days of this were not shortened, the population of Earth would be ZERO. Take that for just how bad it will be.

Zechariah 12 is at the end of the 70th week. The coming of the Son of Man to save Jerusalem, and fulfill the covenants made to the forefathers. Zechariah is about the salvation of Jerusalem, and not the destruction of Jerusalem. It speaks of the One "whom they have pierced". They will recognize Him and weep, and God will grant the nation of Israel, the remnant that is still alive, salvation. It sounds like what Jesus said will happen when He returns to Earth, except that it will be the whole world that mourns and does not speak to their salvation. Zechariah only speaks to the salvation of Israel. So I do not see the prince as the Messiah, and I don't see the prince as Rome. I see the prince as the antichrist. It should also come to note that I see the antichrist of the first 3 1/2 years as rather sane, but the last 3 1/2 years, the antichrist is possessed by Satan himself, and seeks to destroy Israel. Why? If he could destroy Israel, he would defeat God.
 
Where did Rome come from? I believe the prince is the antichrist, and that what is spoken of in the 70th week is the time of Jacob's trouble, or the Great Tribulation. (Which is the last 3 1/2 weeks of the tribulation). Call it a multiple fulfillment prophecy, just like some (many?) of the prophecies of the first coming were. Jesus says that it will be a time that has no equal, either before or after, in the sheer violence. He also said that if the days of this were not shortened, the population of Earth would be ZERO. Take that for just how bad it will be.

Zechariah 12 is at the end of the 70th week. The coming of the Son of Man to save Jerusalem, and fulfill the covenants made to the forefathers. Zechariah is about the salvation of Jerusalem, and not the destruction of Jerusalem. It speaks of the One "whom they have pierced". They will recognize Him and weep, and God will grant the nation of Israel, the remnant that is still alive, salvation. It sounds like what Jesus said will happen when He returns to Earth, except that it will be the whole world that mourns and does not speak to their salvation. Zechariah only speaks to the salvation of Israel. So I do not see the prince as the Messiah, and I don't see the prince as Rome. I see the prince as the antichrist. It should also come to note that I see the antichrist of the first 3 1/2 years as rather sane, but the last 3 1/2 years, the antichrist is possessed by Satan himself, and seeks to destroy Israel. Why? If he could destroy Israel, he would defeat God.

The speaker is Daniel, so it will help to stay close to that. In ch 2 he gave the list of the 4 powers that were coming. In 8:13 the abominator comes during the 4th of those powers. In 9, 490 years are counted out and the abominator is mentioned again within them. Why should we look past the 490?

Many statements in Mt 24 etc are in the frame of mind of the Roman empire as the whole world, but some are even confined to Judea.

There is no reason to insert X000 years into a sequence that already has 2 breaks, and there are 'Levitical' reasons for the breaks that it does have.

Mind you, I am not for any tyranny, but I would do that no matter what a prophecy said. Surely we learned that lesson coming through US history!

There are articles on why the Mt 24 and parallels did not reach outside their 1st cent. timeframe if you look. I can paste one here if you want. The main reason is that it matches so many things that happened, and has a time stamp. The time stamp is found in Lk 23:38: the babies nursing in that scene would, as adults, ask for the mountains to fall on them because the times would be so horrid.

The horror would be relative to what happened in 586 BC plunder of Jerusalem. There would be considerable slaughter vs transportation to Babylon.
 
The speaker is Daniel, so it will help to stay close to that. In ch 2 he gave the list of the 4 powers that were coming. In 8:13 the abominator comes during the 4th of those powers. In 9, 490 years are counted out and the abominator is mentioned again within them. Why should we look past the 490?
Because, even though "Out of Egypt I called My son" was speaking about Israel coming out of Egypt, the writers of the gospel showed that there was a future fulfillment in Christ. Why? Matthew (for instance) paralleled Moses/Israel with Jesus, and prophecies came up through this.)
Many statements in Mt 24 etc are in the frame of mind of the Roman empire as the whole world, but some are even confined to Judea.
But I would think where it says nation against nation, it is clear that this is not just talking about one nation against one nation, but more than one... by necessity.
There is no reason to insert X000 years into a sequence that already has 2 breaks, and there are 'Levitical' reasons for the breaks that it does have.

Mind you, I am not for any tyranny, but I would do that no matter what a prophecy said. Surely we learned that lesson coming through US history!

There are articles on why the Mt 24 and parallels did not reach outside their 1st cent. timeframe if you look. I can paste one here if you want. The main reason is that it matches so many things that happened, and has a time stamp. The time stamp is found in Lk 23:38: the babies nursing in that scene would, as adults, ask for the mountains to fall on them because the times would be so horrid.
There are some, but I don't remember Josephus recording Christ returning and separating the sheep from the goats, do you? The world didn't end before we were born, did it? Just as Old Testament events and prophecies found renewed fulfillment in Christ's first coming, should we fail to consider the possibility that prophecies concerning Christ's second coming do not also have future fulfillment?
The horror would be relative to what happened in 586 BC plunder of Jerusalem. There would be considerable slaughter vs transportation to Babylon
Are you sure? I'm pretty sure that even that doesn't top what the Romans did. The Romans killed everyone in Jerusalem. There wouldn't be anyone left to transport anywhere. Anyone who tried to escape, or who left Jerusalem was crucified. They wiped out forests to have enough wood to make all the crosses. Yet even with that, there were events in the future that topped even that. However, Jesus said that there would be no historical or future event that would reach the level of Jacob's trouble, and that if the days were not shortened, there would be no flesh left. (Earth population: 0)
Jesus is speaking to a future event. Where does most of the death and dying come from? God's wrath. If God did not take mercy and shorten the days, there would be no flesh left. So consider just how great God's wrath is against sin, that once unleashed, if He didn't shorten the days, nothing would remain. (And this wrath includes the wars, the destruction, natural disasters, etc.)
 
Because, even though "Out of Egypt I called My son" was speaking about Israel coming out of Egypt, the writers of the gospel showed that there was a future fulfillment in Christ. Why? Matthew (for instance) paralleled Moses/Israel with Jesus, and prophecies came up through this.)

But I would think where it says nation against nation, it is clear that this is not just talking about one nation against one nation, but more than one... by necessity.

There are some, but I don't remember Josephus recording Christ returning and separating the sheep from the goats, do you? The world didn't end before we were born, did it? Just as Old Testament events and prophecies found renewed fulfillment in Christ's first coming, should we fail to consider the possibility that prophecies concerning Christ's second coming do not also have future fulfillment?

Are you sure? I'm pretty sure that even that doesn't top what the Romans did. The Romans killed everyone in Jerusalem. There wouldn't be anyone left to transport anywhere. Anyone who tried to escape, or who left Jerusalem was crucified. They wiped out forests to have enough wood to make all the crosses. Yet even with that, there were events in the future that topped even that. However, Jesus said that there would be no historical or future event that would reach the level of Jacob's trouble, and that if the days were not shortened, there would be no flesh left. (Earth population: 0)
Jesus is speaking to a future event. Where does most of the death and dying come from? God's wrath. If God did not take mercy and shorten the days, there would be no flesh left. So consider just how great God's wrath is against sin, that once unleashed, if He didn't shorten the days, nothing would remain. (And this wrath includes the wars, the destruction, natural disasters, etc.)


There are all kinds of problems if we miss what is said at Mt 24:29. Up to that verse the details are 1st cent. Judean. He then says that right after that there would be world-wide signs and events.

That didn't happen. There are 3 explanations: 'only the Father knows' in Mt 24. Mk 13: there were 4 possible times the Master would return. And 2 Peter 3: the express explanation: the grace of God. Peter is actually answering this question!

That means that up to v29 took place and Israel was destroyed. And that the FDJ did not, yet.

When these categories are crossed, there is a train wreck.

There are certainly OT passages that were about something in the past, and definitely about Christ, but with Dan 9 there is no reason to leave the sequence, when it follows the 1st cent. events so well. If you haven't had a chance, please review the paraphrase I posted above.







The grammatical difficulty of the passage is that the antecedent that switches at v27b to the evil figure of 8:13+. I have spent about 40 years looking into things here. Here is a well-navigated translation that keeps Messiah, Rome and the evil person distinct as intended:

v24 In 490 years from the return, Messiah will make atonement and bring in righteousness, the righteousness of God, Romans 1:16, 3:21.

v25 The rebuilt temple will include a plaza and will be a defensive structure (it was both).

v26 After 483 years, Messiah will be cut off, but that will not be for himself. Rome (the last of the 4 powers of Dan 2) will come and destroy the city and the sanctuary. The destruction will be like a quick flood. There will be a decreed war until the end.

v27 Messiah will confirm the covenant of Israel--show that what he just accomplished was promised to Abraham from the beginning. This was done through his teaching on both sides of his death (40 days of intense instruction after his death & Res before Pentecost).

V27b Meanwhile the evil person of 8:13 will come doing a new kind of abomination ('on the wings'), but the decree against him will hold (I Thess 'you know what restrains him' comforted the readers) and will destroy him.

Josephus commented on this in his history of the Jewish War (66-73AD); he was a trained priest and this was the accepted understanding of Dan 9 in yeshiva. So the set of questions that start Mt 24 etc are on this topic: IOW, when does the 'end' of Dan 9 happen?

There is much more in my THE COVENANT REVOLT at Amazon. My master's thesis work was on the relation between Luke-Acts and the revolt. Luke is the last of the parallel gospels and says the most on the topic.

The important overall thrust of Dan 9 is that Israel is ruined, but Messiah's accomplishment stands and is eternal. Not quite the answer Daniel was seeking.
 
v26 After 483 years, Messiah will be cut off, but that will not be for himself. Rome (the last of the 4 powers of Dan 2) will come and destroy the city and the sanctuary. The destruction will be like a quick flood. There will be a decreed war until the end.
God judged Rome as He did the rulers of Babylon, Medes and Persians, and Greeks. And we see that the Gentiles are still ruling so there is one last Gentile rulership to come.
 
Daniel 9:27
And he shall make a strong covenant with many for one week, and for half of the week he shall put an end to sacrifice and offering. And on the wing of abominations shall come one who makes desolate, until the decreed end is poured out on the desolator.”


Question. Who is the he?
`He` is the `Assyrian` (Isa. 31: 8) the final ruler of the final gentile rulership. (Dan. 2: 41 - 44)
 
Daniel 9:27
And he shall make a strong covenant with many for one week, and for half of the week he shall put an end to sacrifice and offering. And on the wing of abominations shall come one who makes desolate, until the decreed end is poured out on the desolator.”


Question. Who is the he?
This he is Jesus.
Who else but Jesus ushered in the COG? Was crucified, which put an end to sacrifices and offerings? And after this, the temple is destroyed in AD 70.

In context, 24 “Seventy weeks are decreed about your people and your holy city, to finish the transgression, to put an end to sin, and to atone for iniquity, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal both vision and prophet, and to anoint a most holy place. Dan 9.
Who but Christ has done this?

I believe it is a serious error naming the he is Dan 9:27 the antichrist.
 
What does Jesus mean by the abomination of desolation and who or what is that abomination according to Jesus from the context of Matthew 24 ?
I though it was obvious this refers to AD 70.
 
Nope nothing obvious about 70 ad
I think the reason for disagreement here is covenant theology vs dispensationalism. I'm quite sure there is nothing we could say to change each other's minds, only God can do such a thing.
 
There are all kinds of problems if we miss what is said at Mt 24:29. Up to that verse the details are 1st cent. Judean. He then says that right after that there would be world-wide signs and events.

That didn't happen. There are 3 explanations: 'only the Father knows' in Mt 24. Mk 13: there were 4 possible times the Master would return. And 2 Peter 3: the express explanation: the grace of God. Peter is actually answering this question!

That means that up to v29 took place and Israel was destroyed. And that the FDJ did not, yet.

When these categories are crossed, there is a train wreck.

There are certainly OT passages that were about something in the past, and definitely about Christ, but with Dan 9 there is no reason to leave the sequence, when it follows the 1st cent. events so well. If you haven't had a chance, please review the paraphrase I posted above.







The grammatical difficulty of the passage is that the antecedent that switches at v27b to the evil figure of 8:13+. I have spent about 40 years looking into things here. Here is a well-navigated translation that keeps Messiah, Rome and the evil person distinct as intended:

v24 In 490 years from the return, Messiah will make atonement and bring in righteousness, the righteousness of God, Romans 1:16, 3:21.

v25 The rebuilt temple will include a plaza and will be a defensive structure (it was both).

v26 After 483 years, Messiah will be cut off, but that will not be for himself. Rome (the last of the 4 powers of Dan 2) will come and destroy the city and the sanctuary. The destruction will be like a quick flood. There will be a decreed war until the end.

v27 Messiah will confirm the covenant of Israel--show that what he just accomplished was promised to Abraham from the beginning. This was done through his teaching on both sides of his death (40 days of intense instruction after his death & Res before Pentecost).

V27b Meanwhile the evil person of 8:13 will come doing a new kind of abomination ('on the wings'), but the decree against him will hold (I Thess 'you know what restrains him' comforted the readers) and will destroy him.

Josephus commented on this in his history of the Jewish War (66-73AD); he was a trained priest and this was the accepted understanding of Dan 9 in yeshiva. So the set of questions that start Mt 24 etc are on this topic: IOW, when does the 'end' of Dan 9 happen?

There is much more in my THE COVENANT REVOLT at Amazon. My master's thesis work was on the relation between Luke-Acts and the revolt. Luke is the last of the parallel gospels and says the most on the topic.

The important overall thrust of Dan 9 is that Israel is ruined, but Messiah's accomplishment stands and is eternal. Not quite the answer Daniel was seeking.
Does Jesus break covenants? I mean, the verse says that this same person breaks the covenant half-way through. Israel doesn't break the covenant. The 70th week has a future fulfillment, which is something that even some of the ECF believed. However, they focused more on the wrath of God and the last 3 1/2 years.

Here is a quick look at how I see history. The Old Testament is the history of God's chosen people Israel, with the church being the hidden mystery of the Old Testament, revealed in the new. Following the rejection of Christ as Messiah and His gospel by the Jews (as spoken by Paul), we enter into the times of the Gentiles.

Then, following Paul's writings, we then go back to the Jews, after the times of the Gentiles is fulfilled, and God deals with the Jews again. The blindness is removed and all Israel is saved. This is in keeping with Zechariah 12, Jeremiah 31, and Isaiah. When Satan attempts to destroy Israel and the Jews, Christ returns, and Jesus is their salvation, and He destroys the armies that come against Jerusalem and saves His people. At that time, all those of Israel who are still alive, will recognize Him, and will mourn Him. And God will open rivers of repentance/forgiveness, and all will be saved.

We have this in Jeremiah 31:
"31 “Behold, days are coming,” declares Yahweh, “when I will cut a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah, 32 not like the covenant which I cut with their fathers in the day I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, but I was a husband to them,” declares Yahweh. 33 “But this is the covenant which I will cut with the house of Israel after those days,” declares Yahweh: “I will put My law within them, and on their heart I will write it; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people. 34 And they will not teach again, each man his neighbor and each man his brother, saying, ‘Know Yahweh,’ for they will all know Me, from the least of them to the greatest of them,” declares Yahweh, “for I will forgive their iniquity, and their sin I will remember no more.”

35 Thus says Yahweh,

Who gives the sun for light by day
And the statutes for the moon and the stars for light by night,
Who stirs up the sea so that its waves roar;
Yahweh of hosts is His name:
36 “If these statutes are removed
From before Me,” declares Yahweh,
“Then the seed of Israel also will cease
From being a nation before Me [m]forever.”
37 Thus says Yahweh,

“If the heavens above can be measured
And the foundations of the earth searched out below,
Then I will also reject all the seed of Israel
For all that they have done,” declares Yahweh."

Has God rejected, or will God reject Israel? No. Has anyone taken their place? No. This makes it clear. Imagine what the above would mean if Satan actually managed to destroy Israel and the Jews. Satan would win the war. God will have failed to be faithful to His promises. Jesus' death would become meaningless. This is why the world is always going after the Jews.

Satan is constantly deceiving the world against the Jews. Hitler and Germany aren't the only ones deceived, but Hitler was the only one who was dead set on making a world absent of all Jews a reality. Germany managed to wipe out 1/2 of the Jewish population of Europe. (6 million+ Jews) Add to that those killed by Stalin among the 60+ million Russians he killed. Remember, Hitler's "Final Solution" was the death of all Jews.

To truly understand prophecy, one must understand history. I don't have a full understanding of that part of world history. What I wrote is an eye-opener for me from the research I am doing (again).
 
Does Jesus break covenants? I mean, the verse says that this same person breaks the covenant half-way through. Israel doesn't break the covenant. The 70th week has a future fulfillment, which is something that even some of the ECF believed. However, they focused more on the wrath of God and the last 3 1/2 years.

Here is a quick look at how I see history. The Old Testament is the history of God's chosen people Israel, with the church being the hidden mystery of the Old Testament, revealed in the new. Following the rejection of Christ as Messiah and His gospel by the Jews (as spoken by Paul), we enter into the times of the Gentiles.

Then, following Paul's writings, we then go back to the Jews, after the times of the Gentiles is fulfilled, and God deals with the Jews again. The blindness is removed and all Israel is saved. This is in keeping with Zechariah 12, Jeremiah 31, and Isaiah. When Satan attempts to destroy Israel and the Jews, Christ returns, and Jesus is their salvation, and He destroys the armies that come against Jerusalem and saves His people. At that time, all those of Israel who are still alive, will recognize Him, and will mourn Him. And God will open rivers of repentance/forgiveness, and all will be saved.

We have this in Jeremiah 31:
"31 “Behold, days are coming,” declares Yahweh, “when I will cut a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah, 32 not like the covenant which I cut with their fathers in the day I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, but I was a husband to them,” declares Yahweh. 33 “But this is the covenant which I will cut with the house of Israel after those days,” declares Yahweh: “I will put My law within them, and on their heart I will write it; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people. 34 And they will not teach again, each man his neighbor and each man his brother, saying, ‘Know Yahweh,’ for they will all know Me, from the least of them to the greatest of them,” declares Yahweh, “for I will forgive their iniquity, and their sin I will remember no more.”

35 Thus says Yahweh,

Who gives the sun for light by day
And the statutes for the moon and the stars for light by night,
Who stirs up the sea so that its waves roar;
Yahweh of hosts is His name:
36 “If these statutes are removed
From before Me,” declares Yahweh,
“Then the seed of Israel also will cease
From being a nation before Me [m]forever.”
37 Thus says Yahweh,

“If the heavens above can be measured
And the foundations of the earth searched out below,
Then I will also reject all the seed of Israel
For all that they have done,” declares Yahweh."

Has God rejected, or will God reject Israel? No. Has anyone taken their place? No. This makes it clear. Imagine what the above would mean if Satan actually managed to destroy Israel and the Jews. Satan would win the war. God will have failed to be faithful to His promises. Jesus' death would become meaningless. This is why the world is always going after the Jews.

Satan is constantly deceiving the world against the Jews. Hitler and Germany aren't the only ones deceived, but Hitler was the only one who was dead set on making a world absent of all Jews a reality. Germany managed to wipe out 1/2 of the Jewish population of Europe. (6 million+ Jews) Add to that those killed by Stalin among the 60+ million Russians he killed. Remember, Hitler's "Final Solution" was the death of all Jews.

To truly understand prophecy, one must understand history. I don't have a full understanding of that part of world history. What I wrote is an eye-opener for me from the research I am doing (again).


1, there is no breaking.
He will confirm a covenant with many for one week.[bs]
But in the middle of that week
he will bring sacrifices and offerings to a halt.
On the wing[bt] of abominations will come[bu] one who destroys,
until the decreed end is poured out on the one who destroys.”


Remember the subject is Messiah, until 'one who destroys' (also mentioned above).

2, What's the ECF?

3, The prophets foretold the sacrifice of Messiah and the outreach of his message to the nations. Did you know that Paul once said in Acts 26 that 'we say nothing beyond what is permitted, that (these two things)....' His life was at stake. Why did he not says 'guys, let's try to calm down here. This is just temporary--you know, a few thousand years. Then you guys will have your golden age.' Sorry but I cannot find this anywhere in the NT.

4, There are some rabbinic docs that acknowledge that after Messiah, there was to be a huge outreach to all nations. But they do not have a doctrine that a phase reverts afterward to Israel. Nor does Paul. The next thing is the FDJ (final day of judgement). This is why the apostles are very clear: the world is ending at the end of this generation, and Israel is judged first. No one realize that a delay was allowed. Not a delay in Israel's judgement, clearly. A delay in FDJ or after v29 of Matt when the stage is no longer 1st cent. Judea.

The delay was allowed 2 ways: 'only the Father knows' the hour of the FDJ and Mk 13: there are 4 times allowed for the return of the Owner of the estate.

2 Peter 3 is an express discussion of this delay. It is the very question that has been raised to him by scoffers. There is no future Judaic phase or features mentioned; just the FDJ and the NHNE.

5, We should consult the NT when it quotes the OT. Jer 31 is quoted by Hebrews (besides the general theme of the new covenant--last supper, 2 Cor 3-5, etc). It has come. The OT is always in vivid pictures like 'prospering in your homes' but that is not the thought, as we see from the numerous quotes of the NT. It was meant to be seen in Christ.
 
1, there is no breaking.
He will confirm a covenant with many for one week.[bs]
But in the middle of that week
he will bring sacrifices and offerings to a halt.
On the wing[bt] of abominations will come[bu] one who destroys,
until the decreed end is poured out on the one who destroys.”
Amen.
 
Does Jesus break covenants? I mean, the verse says that this same person breaks the covenant half-way through. Israel doesn't break the covenant. The 70th week has a future fulfillment, which is something that even some of the ECF believed. However, they focused more on the wrath of God and the last 3 1/2 years.

Here is a quick look at how I see history. The Old Testament is the history of God's chosen people Israel, with the church being the hidden mystery of the Old Testament, revealed in the new. Following the rejection of Christ as Messiah and His gospel by the Jews (as spoken by Paul), we enter into the times of the Gentiles.

Then, following Paul's writings, we then go back to the Jews, after the times of the Gentiles is fulfilled, and God deals with the Jews again. The blindness is removed and all Israel is saved. This is in keeping with Zechariah 12, Jeremiah 31, and Isaiah. When Satan attempts to destroy Israel and the Jews, Christ returns, and Jesus is their salvation, and He destroys the armies that come against Jerusalem and saves His people. At that time, all those of Israel who are still alive, will recognize Him, and will mourn Him. And God will open rivers of repentance/forgiveness, and all will be saved.

We have this in Jeremiah 31:
"31 “Behold, days are coming,” declares Yahweh, “when I will cut a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah, 32 not like the covenant which I cut with their fathers in the day I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, but I was a husband to them,” declares Yahweh. 33 “But this is the covenant which I will cut with the house of Israel after those days,” declares Yahweh: “I will put My law within them, and on their heart I will write it; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people. 34 And they will not teach again, each man his neighbor and each man his brother, saying, ‘Know Yahweh,’ for they will all know Me, from the least of them to the greatest of them,” declares Yahweh, “for I will forgive their iniquity, and their sin I will remember no more.”

35 Thus says Yahweh,

Who gives the sun for light by day
And the statutes for the moon and the stars for light by night,
Who stirs up the sea so that its waves roar;
Yahweh of hosts is His name:
36 “If these statutes are removed
From before Me,” declares Yahweh,
“Then the seed of Israel also will cease
From being a nation before Me [m]forever.”
37 Thus says Yahweh,

“If the heavens above can be measured
And the foundations of the earth searched out below,
Then I will also reject all the seed of Israel
For all that they have done,” declares Yahweh."

Has God rejected, or will God reject Israel? No. Has anyone taken their place? No. This makes it clear. Imagine what the above would mean if Satan actually managed to destroy Israel and the Jews. Satan would win the war. God will have failed to be faithful to His promises. Jesus' death would become meaningless. This is why the world is always going after the Jews.

Satan is constantly deceiving the world against the Jews. Hitler and Germany aren't the only ones deceived, but Hitler was the only one who was dead set on making a world absent of all Jews a reality. Germany managed to wipe out 1/2 of the Jewish population of Europe. (6 million+ Jews) Add to that those killed by Stalin among the 60+ million Russians he killed. Remember, Hitler's "Final Solution" was the death of all Jews.

To truly understand prophecy, one must understand history. I don't have a full understanding of that part of world history. What I wrote is an eye-opener for me from the research I am doing (again).

The Third Reich was the other side of reducing the issue to race-nation. One failure is to kill Jews. The other failure is to think that the race-nation is intermittently God's attention, alternating with the church (the adultery-divorce-remarriage theme would collapse). This breaks the Bible in to 2 peoples, 2 programs. Ironically, that is what Paul's oppoenents, the Judaizers were about.

If you research, you will find that an interest in the race-nation theologically, not just for humanitarian reasons, comes from people not familiar with Christ at all, and boosted in the 1800s by a scandalous figure, G. Elliot, in her novel DANIEL DERONDA. One historian says nothing excited interest in returning to Israel by European Jews more than the novel.

That means they went back and read Isaiah etc and it was about them; the same people are inflamed with denial that the Servant of ch 53 is Christ.

I have no problem with the Jews being in their land in a humanitarian sense, any more than the Indians in the mountains of Costa Rica having access to the ocean as they did originally. But the prophecy stuff is so far from the meaning of the NT, I wouldn't know where to begin. It's like a time-warp; you would being going back to 'crossing the Jordan' and fighting for Judea against the Philistines all over again.

Check Acts 13's sermon as an official statement of the history, destiny, legacy of the place: it was all clearly meant to produce missionaries as soon as Christ was resurrected, who would reach the world with His grace. Well, at least 5000 got off to a good start! Acts 4.
 
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