That is not what I am saying. I am not saying anything about the origins of Christian views on the will. Go back and re-read the post and read it as many times as it takes to correctly understand what is actually written.
You found me.
Do you think I am alone in my views? Did I come to my positions in a vacuum? I alone am the only one who holds this/these views and I've arrived at them separating myself from everyone? Have you noted the "likes" my posts have received in this thread? They indicate shared views.
So we both, therefore, understand the "
I have not found..." means the lack is on your end, your search, your reading, and not a measure of others' existence. Read more diversely.
I part ways with Calvin in more than one place. That is why, as I previously posted, I self-identify as a monergist rather than a Calvinist.
Before I dive into Leviticus 18:5, let me first note that this is a post-disobedient verse written in a post-disobedient world about post-disobedient conditions and, as such, it should never be applied to pre-disobedient conditions and
this op is specifically about pre-disobedient conditions, according to the witness of your own posts. Therefore, on every occasion when you attempt to apply any scripture written in post-disobedient conditions about post-disobedient conditions I am going make not of it because it is always wrong to do that. It's wrong of Calvin to do so, it's wrong of Fesko to do so, and it's wrong of you or me to do so. Don't do it again if you don't want me to call you one it. It's bad exegesis and bad at a foundational level. Nothing built on that practice can be correct.
Leviticus 18:5
So you shall keep My statutes and My judgments, by which a man may live if he does them; I am the LORD.
IF we were to apply that verse (and we should not) to Genesis 1:1-3:5, and adapt it to those conditions (because "live" has a completely different meaning in the creation text), then the only two specfied "statutes" were "
Be fruitful and don't disobey Me," colloquially speaking, AND Adam and Eve were already living at liberty and sinless (as opposed to the Leviticus audience that was dead-in-sin and thereby bound, enslaved, and unable to reach God in their own effort for salvation (on this point Arms and Cals agree).
Calvin wrote a commentary on the book of Leviticus. His commentary speaks about the post-disobedient condition, NOT the pre-disobedient condition, AND he is doing so overtly as a Christian, someone regenerate, indwelt, and informed by a Spirit-filled reading of wholes scripture (not just the Law of Moses), so I ask you, "What is your reference for the claim Calvin's treatment of the verse indicates he'd disagree with me?" I just read his commentary on Leviticus 18:5 and I agree with him, and I read nothing he wrote disagreeing with my views.
- To what treatment of Leviticus 18:5 are you referring?
- Why did you not post the source proactively and preemptively so I and others could examine it before and consider the merits of your claim?
- What, specifically, did Calvin state that varies from what I have posted?
For the record: if what you are reading is Calvin's Institutes then you're doing yourself a disservice. His Institutes is a fantastic piece of work, but he wrote it as a Catholic in an express effort to reform the Catholic Church. It is not a very good source for understanding his own Protestantism and his examination of scripture. For the latter you will have to read his commentaries, and relevant to this op you should start with his commentary on Genesis, not Leviticus, and then his commentaries on the books of the NT that speak about the pre-disobedient Adam. There's not a lot in scripture about pre-disobedient conditions.
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