Josheb
Well Known Member
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- May 19, 2023
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What is the "covenant of works" as you understand it?The covenant of works is not...
The op is not explicit defining the phrase (perhaps @Guy Swenson could clarify, elaborate, and specify) but it appears the covenant of works described in this op has to do with a probationary period of time BEFORE Adam was "corrupted dying mankind." It appears you are defining the term differently than as defined in the op.The covenant of works is not of the corrupted dying mankind But the incorruptible covenant work of God .
Yes, Jesus was not born of corruptible seed, but what has that to do with Adam's purported covenant of works in the still good, sinless, and pre-disobedient state?1 Peter 1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
You following this 1 Pet. 1:23 reference, @Guy Swenson? Here's that mention of corruptibility again (see Post 281 above). Adam? Corruptible. Born that way. Jesus? Incorruptible. Born that way.