As Bob said in his response, “You can claim what you please based on biblical silence.”
I disagree, but that point is irrelevant anyhow because the Bible is not silent in this case. The evidence is right there in Genesis 2 that the context is Eden, not the entire planet.
Your move.
The simple intended reading of the text refers to the entire planet …
Perhaps a little too simple, I would suggest. The moment that one even begins to take the text seriously as the word of God, he will discover that the Israelites to whom this was written had no concept of the earth as a planet. (I would recommend to you the 2015 book by Kyle Greenwood,
Scripture and Cosmology, where he explains what their understanding was back then.) If that’s the case (and it is), then this text can’t be referring to the entire planet. Furthermore, as I had already pointed out, there is evidence in this passage that the context is Eden.
YOU…YOU….YOU...haven’t shown that it only refers to the garden of Eden.
Settle down, mate. And yes, I did—
in the very post you were quoting.
Do you really not understand what the mother of all means???????
Again, settle down. It is irrelevant what I think it means. What you think it means is what matters here because (a) you cited it as support for (b) your claim.
It says that he named her Eve because she was the mother of all the living. What does “the living” mean?
“It means her biological progeny,” you said. All right, and how did you draw that conclusion?
“It’s just obvious,” you said.
Okay, that’s not how this works. If your belief is based on Scripture, then where is the interpretation? What is the Hebrew word being used in the inspired original text? What is semantic range of that word? How does the Bible define life and living? And so on. That is what’s being asked of you.
Or maybe your belief isn’t based on Scripture.
Perhaps you’ll start to argue it means Eve was the mother of all, even giraffes and lions.
No, that isn’t what I would argue because, for starters, I don’t think it says that Eve was “the mother of all”—as if to leave the reader wondering, “All what?” That is your unique, curious, and idiosyncratic reading of the text which literally no English translation says. (Thus, what Bible are you reading?)
It says that Eve was “the mother of all
the living,” so I would begin by searching the immediate and proximate context of that statement through historical-grammatical exegesis to see if the meaning is suggested anywhere (and it is). I would then compare that with how Scripture defines life and living and then, using Scripture to interpret Scripture (
analogia fidei), I would flesh out its meaning through a redemptive-historical hermeneutic.
I don’t think it’s referring to “spirits.” It’s overly obvious it refers to biological progeny.
Really? You think a theological definition of life or living means “spirits”? I’m almost afraid to ask this, but, “From where is that conclusion drawn?”
Again, you need to demonstrate through meaningful exegesis that the Bible defines life in biological terms—because if it defines life in theological terms (and it does) then Genesis 3:20 doesn’t support your claim.
The reference to Christ is about his role, what he did in relationship to Adam.
Exactly, he is the second and last archetypal man, not literally the second or last man. Now, apply that consistently to the rest of that passage.
Alternatively, if you want to argue that Adam and Christ are being bifurcated here, that will require substantive justification. Best of luck with that.
It isn’t a surprise you had to change the context to force fit it into your strange beliefs.
In what way did I change the context?
What you need to do is present a Bible verse that shows there were other people besides Adam.
We are dealing with the biblical references you cited as support for your claim. My claim and its support has no relevance here. As I have told you (more than once), I would be happy to argue for my claim once we have finished looking at yours.
No, the Bible says, “From one man God made every nation of men” (Acts 17:26).
I presume your English translation says that—and mine does, too. But that doesn’t change the fact that the word man (or blood) was added to the Bible later, that it wasn’t in the original, inspired Scriptures. That is something that a student of Scripture needs to take seriously when it comes to interpreting Scripture.
[Acts 17:26] doesn’t say “from many populations of men, who were around prior to Adam, God made every nation.” IT DOESN’T SAY THAT.
Correct. But then nobody said it did, anyway, so that’s a weird tangent. And in my response to you (which you quoted), I explained how I interpret it—and that wasn’t it. (Also: Settle down.)