Bible Problem

[David1701]

Manuscripts have to be weighed and not merely counted.

I know about the different methods of textual criticism, thanks.

The text used by the NASB, and many other modern translations, although not all, weighs a tiny number of error-strewn manuscripts more than the huge majority of manuscripts, simply because they are claimed to be older. This in spite of the fact that the main two on which they rely, differ from each more than 3,000 times, in the gospels alone.

The underlying philosophy of this type of textual criticism is called "rationalism". It asserts that the correct text has been lost, and must be reconstructed from the available evidence, using a set of rationalistic rules (rules that discount the vast majority of Greek manuscripts as being worthless). The people in charge of such "reconstruction" are theological Liberals, although some of the translations based upon their texts are Evangelical.

The other main method of textual criticism is based on believing in God's providence, throughout the ages. The believing churches are the pillar and ground of the truth and they have had trustworthy texts available to them, down through the centuries. This has resulted in the vast majority of the manuscripts being reliable and in translations from those texts having been used in various languages, right from the earliest centuries.

The RC Vulgate is not an example of the above, because Romanism is not a believing church (far from it).

Believing in the above type of providence results in trusting that God provided the same kind of trustworthy texts, at the Reformation (a time of return to God and his word), that the believing churches had always used (the Traditional Text, a.k.a. Byzantine Text).

Believing in the rationalistic approach results in the view that a trustworthy text was not recovered until the late 1800s, during a period of spiritual decline and departure from faith in God and his word, which departure accelerated in the 1900s.

 

[David1701]

Co-mediator. They also believe she can forgive sins.

And they teach that we go to Jesus through Mary, because she is supposedly more compassionate.

Their heresies are egregious.

 

[David1701]

The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree.[Acts 5:30 KJV]

The God of our fathers raised Jesus, whom you killed by hanging him on a tree.[ESV]

The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom you had put to death by hanging Him on a cross.[NASBU]

The God of our ancestors raised Jesus from the dead—whom you killed by hanging him on a cross.[NIV]

The KJV absolutely dropped the ball here. They say Jesus was murdered and then hanged Him on a tree. He was murdered while on it, not before it. The KJV translators blew it here. Own it.

Well, the KJV doesn't say, "...whom ye slew, then hanged on a tree.". It says that they slew him and hanged him on a tree, which does not preclude the second being the method employed in the first. I will say, though, that the modern translations are better in this verse.

 

[David1701]

Why does Scripture show the children of God crying "Abba! Father!" while Catholicism cries "Mommy?"

This isn't simply ironic, and I am being dead serious here.

It's ancient goddess worship (Semiramis), in modern garb.

 

[David1701]

It's ancient goddess worship (Semi-Ramis), in modern garb.

There are many false religions, all round the world, with pictures of a mother and child (originally Semiramis and Tammuz) and sun-worship halos around their heads.

 

[Fred]

I know about the different methods of textual criticism, thanks.

The text used by the NASB, and many other modern translations, although not all, weighs a tiny number of error-strewn manuscripts more than the huge majority of manuscripts, simply because they are claimed to be older. This in spite of the fact that the main two on which they rely, differ from each more than 3,000 times, in the gospels alone.

The underlying philosophy of this type of textual criticism is called "rationalism". It asserts that the correct text has been lost, and must be reconstructed from the available evidence, using a set of rationalistic rules (rules that discount the vast majority of Greek manuscripts as being worthless). The people in charge of such "reconstruction" are theological Liberals, although some of the translations based upon their texts are Evangelical.

The other main method of textual criticism is based on believing in God's providence, throughout the ages. The believing churches are the pillar and ground of the truth and they have had trustworthy texts available to them, down through the centuries. This has resulted in the vast majority of the manuscripts being reliable and in translations from those texts having been used in various languages, right from the earliest centuries.

The RC Vulgate is not an example of the above, because Romanism is not a believing church (far from it).

Believing in the above type of providence results in trusting that God provided the same kind of trustworthy texts, at the Reformation (a time of return to God and his word), that the believing churches had always used (the Traditional Text, a.k.a. Byzantine Text).

Believing in the rationalistic approach results in the view that a trustworthy text was not recovered until the late 1800s, during a period of spiritual decline and departure from faith in God and his word, which departure accelerated in the 1900s.

Go back and read post 23. - So far, I haven't been surprised.

Thus far, I have given two passages from the NASB that teach the Lord Jesus is God. It does so much better when it comes to John 14:14 and in terms of 1 Peter 3:15 there isn't even a comparison.

How about this: You cite every example where you think the KJV teaches that the Lord Jesus is God better than the NASB. Then I will do so for the NASB.
Then we can compare which version does so better.

 

[Deleted member 6]

Well, the KJV doesn't say, "...whom ye slew, then hanged on a tree.". It says that they slew him and hanged him on a tree, which does not preclude the second being the method employed in the first. I will say, though, that the modern translations are better in this verse.

There is a clear demarcation between Him being slain and hung upon tree. So, they did not correctly translate that verse. And then there's the Easter faux pas...

 

[David1701]

Go back and read post 23. - So far, I haven't been surprised.

Thus far, I have given two passages from the NASB that teach the Lord Jesus is God. It does so much better when it comes to John 14:14 and in terms of 1 Peter 3:15 there isn't even a comparison.

How about this: You cite every example where you think the KJV teaches that the Lord Jesus is God better than the NASB. Then I will do so for the NASB.
Then we can compare which version does so better.

The NASB doesn't do "so much better", since it's merely translating a spurious minority reading, in John 14:14 and 1 Pet. 3:15.

Here are some Scriptures where the CT (it's not so much to do with translations, although I'll use the NASB as an example, but the underlying text) vitiates testimony to the deity of Christ.

I'm not going to use the KJV, as a contrast (I'm not KJO), but a modern translation, based on the Majority Text (the World English Bible). The NASB and WEB are both revisions of the American Standard Version.

1) 1 Timothy 3:16 (Deity)

1 Tim. 3:16 (NASB)
Beyond question, great is the mystery of godliness:

He who was revealed in the flesh,
Was vindicated in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Proclaimed among the nations,
Believed on in the world,
Taken up in glory.

1 Tim. 3:16 (WEB) Without controversy, the mystery of godliness is great: God was revealed in the flesh, justified in the spirit, seen by angels, preached among the nations, believed on in the world, and received up in glory.

He who was revealed in the flesh tells you nothing (it could be anyone and there's certainly no testimony to the deity of Christ). God was revealed in the flesh tells you everything.

The vast majority of Greek manuscripts read, "God was revealed in the flesh". There is a tiny minority that reads "Who (with male gender) was revealed in the flesh". The words for "who" and "God" (in the Greek) differ only by a stroke, so it's extremely likely that the tiny minority reading is due to a scribal error, which is why it is not supported in the huge majority of Greek manuscripts.

2) John 3:13 (Omnipresence)

John 3:13 (NASB) No one has ascended into heaven, except He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.

John 3:13 (WEB) No-one has ascended into heaven, but he who descended out of heaven, the Son of Man, who is in heaven.

There are very few testimonies to the Lord's omnipresence, in the NT, during his earthly ministry, so each one becomes extremely important. The minute minority reading omits the testimony here (about 99.5% of extant manuscripts containing this portion of Scripture support this testimony to our Lord's omnipresence).

3) John 7:8 (Truthfulness)

John 7:8 (NASB) Go up to the feast yourselves; I am not going up to this feast, because My time has not yet fully arrived.

John 7:8 (WEB) You go up to the feast. I am not yet going up to this feast, because my time is not yet fulfilled.

The text the NASB used has a negative testimony to the Lord here, making him out to be a liar. This is obviously a scribal error, omitting the first instance of the word for "yet". Again, the vast majority of manuscripts have this right, not surprisingly.

4) Ephesians 3:9 (All things created through Christ)

Eph. 3:9 (NASB) and to enlighten all people as to what the plan of the mystery is which for ages has been hidden in God, who created all things;

Eph. 3:9 (WEB) and to make all men see what is the administration of the mystery which for ages has been hidden in God, who created all things through Jesus Christ;

This example speaks for itself; so, why the omission? Well, it's because 5 or 6 manuscripts omit the testimony, compared with thousands that contain it.

There are many, many more examples of weakening, or removing, testimony to the Lord, but they all have one thing in common: they are based on a pitifully small amount of evidence, the Liberal critics deciding that a handful of error-strewn manuscripts, that disagree with each other in thousands of places, from one area, and one time period, outweigh the testimony of the huge majority of Greek manuscripts, from many areas and time periods, and that they outweigh the general usage of the believing churches, throughout the ages.

It's incredible to me that any genuine Christian, who has investigated the evidence presented by scholars from both sides, could possibly support the so-called Critical Text. Do they really believe that the believing churches had only manuscripts that were full of errors available to them, until the late 1800s?!

 

[David1701]

There is a clear demarcation between Him being slain and hung upon tree. So, they did not correctly translate that verse. And then there's the Easter faux pas...

The word "and" is not a demarcation word; it's a conjunction (joining things together); however, as I've said, the modern versions are better, in this verse.

Yes, "Easter" is a mistranslation, in the KJV; it should be "Passover", as most translations have.

 

[Fred]

The NASB doesn't do "so much better",

I'm sorry. The word "so" was a typo in my previous response.
I'm saying the NASB does better when it comes to demonstrating the fact that the Lord Jesus is God.

since it's merely translating a spurious minority reading, in John 14:14 and 1 Pet. 3:15.

Spurious is your false assertion.

These two passages better affirm Jesus is God in the NASB than the KJV.

Here are some Scriptures where the CT (it's not so much to do with translations, although I'll use the NASB as an example, but the underlying text) vitiates testimony to the deity of Christ.

I'm not going to use the KJV, as a contrast (I'm not KJO), but a modern translation, based on the Majority Text (the World English Bible). The NASB and WEB are both revisions of the American Standard Version.

1) 1 Timothy 3:16 (Deity)

1 Tim. 3:16 (NASB)
Beyond question, great is the mystery of godliness:

He who was revealed in the flesh,
Was vindicated in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Proclaimed among the nations,
Believed on in the world,
Taken up in glory.

1 Tim. 3:16 (WEB) Without controversy, the mystery of godliness is great: God was revealed in the flesh, justified in the spirit, seen by angels, preached among the nations, believed on in the world, and received up in glory.

He who was revealed in the flesh tells you nothing (it could be anyone and there's certainly no testimony to the deity of Christ). God was revealed in the flesh tells you everything.

There still is a testimony to the Deity of Christ in the NASB. For when ti reads Jesus was proclaimed to the nations this is in reference to the gospel. And the gospel Paul "preached" (the same Greek word used in 1 Timothy 3:16; cf. Romans 10:8) includes the fact that Jesus is YHWH (Romans 10:13; cf. Joel 2:32).

The vast majority of Greek manuscripts read, "God was revealed in the flesh". There is a tiny minority that reads "Who (with male gender) was revealed in the flesh". The words for "who" and "God" (in the Greek) differ only by a stroke, so it's extremely likely that the tiny minority reading is due to a scribal error, which is why it is not supported in the huge majority of Greek manuscripts.

2) John 3:13 (Omnipresence)

John 3:13 (NASB) No one has ascended into heaven, except He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.

John 3:13 (WEB) No-one has ascended into heaven, but he who descended out of heaven, the Son of Man, who is in heaven.

There are very few testimonies to the Lord's omnipresence, in the NT, during his earthly ministry, so each one becomes extremely important. The minute minority reading omits the testimony here (about 99.5% of extant manuscripts containing this portion of Scripture support this testimony to our Lord's omnipresence).

3) John 7:8 (Truthfulness)

John 7:8 (NASB) Go up to the feast yourselves; I am not going up to this feast, because My time has not yet fully arrived.

John 7:8 (WEB) You go up to the feast. I am not yet going up to this feast, because my time is not yet fulfilled.

The text the NASB used has a negative testimony to the Lord here, making him out to be a liar. This is obviously a scribal error, omitting the first instance of the word for "yet". Again, the vast majority of manuscripts have this right, not surprisingly.

False.
At that time He didn't go up to the Feast.

He went up later (v. 9).

4) Ephesians 3:9 (All things created through Christ)

Eph. 3:9 (NASB) and to enlighten all people as to what the plan of the mystery is which for ages has been hidden in God, who created all things;

Eph. 3:9 (WEB) and to make all men see what is the administration of the mystery which for ages has been hidden in God, who created all things through Jesus Christ;

You quoted Ephesians 3:9, but have you also seen Ephesians 3:6?
Ephesians 3:6
NASB: to be specific, that the Gentiles are fellow heirs and fellow members of the body, and fellow partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel.
KJV: That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel.


The NASB does a much better job in demonstrating the fact that the Lord Jesus is God in:
Colossians 3:22 - "Lord" refers to Jesus
Titus 2:13 - Jesus is the great God and Saviour
2 Peter 1:1 - our God and Savior, Jesus Christ

There are others as well.

 

[David1701]

I'm sorry. The word "so" was a typo in my previous response.
I'm saying the NASB does better when it comes to demonstrating the fact that the Lord Jesus is God.




Spurious is your false assertion.

These two passages better affirm Jesus is God in the NASB than the KJV.

Why do you keep bringing up the KJV?

False.
At that time He didn't go up to the Feast.

He went up later (v. 9).

SMH! That's the whole point! The text underlying the NASB makes Jesus out to be a liar, because he states, unequivocally, that he is not going up to the feast. The translations based on the Majority Text type make it plain that he was only not going up yet.

You quoted Ephesians 3:9, but have you also seen Ephesians 3:6?
Ephesians 3:6
NASB: to be specific, that the Gentiles are fellow heirs and fellow members of the body, and fellow partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel.
KJV: That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel.

Eph. 3:6 (WEB) that the Gentiles are fellow heirs, and fellow members of the body, and fellow partakers of his promise in Christ Jesus through the Good News,

Oh look, a Majority Text translation is the same as the NASB, in this verse.

Why do you KEEP bringing up the KJV? Are you obsessed with it?

The NASB does a much better job in demonstrating the fact that the Lord Jesus is God in:
Colossians 3:22 - "Lord" refers to Jesus
Titus 2:13 - Jesus is the great God and Saviour
2 Peter 1:1 - our God and Savior, Jesus Christ

There are others as well.

Col. 3:22 (WEB) Servants, obey in all things those who are your masters according to the flesh, not just when they are looking, as men pleasers, but in singleness of heart, fearing God.

Titus 2:13 (WEB) looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of our great God and Saviour, Jesus Christ;

2 Pet. 1:1 (WEB) Simon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, to those who have obtained a like precious faith with us in the righteousness of our God and Saviour, Jesus Christ:

I don't see "a much better job" here; in fact, the only difference is that the minority text used by the NASB has "Lord", instead of "God", in Col. 3:22. It does not specify to which member of the Godhead this refers, or whether it just refers to God. Oh, and, the NASB has a marginal note, to Titus 2:13, saying "Or the great God and our Savior".

 

[NetChaplain]

I have quite a good understanding of Romanism, thanks.

They certainly do worship a wafer (they say that it becomes the actual body and blood of Jesus), which they sometimes parade around in a monstrance to be worshipped.

They teach that Mary is a "Mediatrix" and "Co-redemptrix".

They teach that you maintain your justification by your good works.

Now, not all RCs know everything that their organisation expects them to believe, but that's a different matter.

Some Bible commentators believe that the "Whore of Babylon" is the RCC; all its attributes do fit the description. Most the members are not aware of the travesties it parades! Only those within this religion who truly seek truth will be led out to another source.

 

[David1701]

Some Bible commentators believe that the "Whore of Babylon" is the RCC; all its attributes do fit the description. Most the members are not aware of the travesties it parades! Only those within this religion who truly seek truth will be led out to another source.

I agree with those Bible commentators.

 

[Fred]

Why do you keep bringing up the KJV?

Because it is the version looked to as superior to a version like the NASB in demonstrating Jesus is God.
I didn't make that original assertion. I am responding to it.

There still is a testimony to the Deity of Christ in the NASB. For when ti reads Jesus was proclaimed to the nations this is in reference to the gospel. And the gospel Paul "preached" (the same Greek word used in 1 Timothy 3:16; cf. Romans 10:8) includes the fact that Jesus is YHWH (Romans 10:13; cf. Joel 2:32).


False.
At that time He didn't go up to the Feast.

He went up later (v. 9).


Eph. 3:6 (WEB) that the Gentiles are fellow heirs, and fellow members of the body, and fellow partakers of his promise in Christ Jesus through the Good News,

Oh look, a Majority Text translation is the same as the NASB, in this verse.

Why do you KEEP bringing up the KJV? Are you obsessed with it?

Why do you belittle the other versions. Are you obssessed with doing so?

Col. 3:22 (WEB) Servants, obey in all things those who are your masters according to the flesh, not just when they are looking, as men pleasers, but in singleness of heart, fearing God.

To fear the Lord involves worshiping the Lord. Thus, Colossians 3:22 is a better proof for the Deity of Christ in the NASB.

Titus 2:13 (WEB) looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of our great God and Saviour, Jesus Christ;

2 Pet. 1:1 (WEB) Simon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, to those who have obtained a like precious faith with us in the righteousness of our God and Saviour, Jesus Christ:

"God" applies to Jesus in both passages.
This is much clearer in the NASB.
Titus 2:13
looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus

2 Peter 1:1
Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ

I don't see "a much better job" here; in fact, the only difference is that the minority text used by the NASB has "Lord", instead of "God", in Col. 3:22. It does not specify to which member of the Godhead this refers,

The context makes it easy to see that the "Lord" refers to Jesus (3:17, 24).

 

[NetChaplain]

Did you know that the KJV omits the word 'God' at 1John 5:12.

How do you know? Please provide a list of missing scripture.

James White is one of my Pastors. The Author of The King James Only Controversy. He can refute any KJVO nonsense. If you prefer the KJV, that's fine. I use mine all the time. But the material you have posted has long been dealt with and found to be in error. Think it over.

Hi, and thanks for your reply! "He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life." KJV https://www.blueletterbible.org/kjv/1jo/5/12/s_1164012.

Omitted Scripture


I would rather trust a translation with many manuscript evidence (about 3,000 manuscripts, regardless the age) than only 2 or three. The antiquity of the copies are the reason why they are so venerated. They are only good as antiques for the archeologist; and the footnotes expressing the reason why they omit its not a good enough reason for taking away Scripture.

Act 8:37
"And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God." [entirely omitted].

1Jo 5:7
Entirely omitted, with the footnote "not found in any Greek manuscripts before the fourteenth century." As I said, the age of a manuscript is irrelevant because it is a manuscript. This was enough for the KJ translators to include it.

Act 28:29 Entirely omitted.

Jhn 5:4 Entirely omitted.



I wanted to present 4 entirely omitted passages, and 3 partially omitted passages.

Jhn 3:13 Partially omitted "even the Son of man which is in heaven." The omission detracts a significant truth, that the Lord Jesus was omnipresent in heaven while on earth.

Eph 3:9 "Who created all things by Jesus Christ." This reiteration of the Lord Jesus' creative power is a significant detraction of Scripture.

Jhn 5:3 Partially omit "waiting for the moving of the water."


There are two passage needed to check to determine if the translation is from the detracted text or the Traditional Text: 2Sam 21:19 omits the phrase "the brother of" rendering a reading that says "Elhanan slew Goliath." the other passage is 1JN 5:7 omits the primary Trinity passage. If these are the translation readings they are from the detracted text and contain hundreds of omitted Scriptures.



The modern translations primarily only use three manuscripts (Vaticanus, Sinaitcus, Alexandrinus – but the latter codex is worse than the prior two and so they did not use much of it at all). The manuscripts for the Traditional Translations use thousands of manuscripts:

"4,489 extant Greek New Testament manuscripts. Of these, 170 are papyrus fragments, dating from the 2nd-7th centuries; 212 are uncial (capital letter) manuscripts, dating from the 4th-10th centuries; 2429 are minuscule (small letter) manuscripts dating from the 9th-16th centuries; and 1678 are lectionaries (lesson books for public reading containing extracts from the New Testament). -David Otis Fuller, D.D., "Counterfeit Or Genuine", pg. 18, 2nd paragraph.

 

[Fred]

Omitted Scripture

Acts 7:20
NASB: It was at this time that Moses was born; and he was lovely in the sight of God, and he was nurtured three months in his father’s home.
KJV: In which time Moses was born, and was exceeding fair, and nourished up in his father's house three months
Question: Why is "in the sight of God" removed from the KJV when in the Greek text "God" (θεῷ) appears?

Acts 16:7
NASB: and after they came to Mysia, they were trying to go into Bithynia, and the Spirit of Jesus did not permit them
KJV: After they were come to Mysia, they assayed to go into Bithynia: but the Spirit suffered them not.
Question: Why is "of Jesus" removed from the KJV?

Acts 24:24
NASB: But some days later Felix arrived with Drusilla, his wife who was a Jewess, and sent for Paul and heard him speak about faith in Christ Jesus.
KJV: And after certain days, when Felix came with his wife Drusilla, which was a Jewess, he sent for Paul, and heard him concerning the faith in Christ.
Question: Why is "Jesus" removed from the KJV?

Romans 8:11
NASB: But if the Spirit of Him who raised Jesus from the dead dwells in you, He who raised Christ Jesus from the dead will also give life to your mortal bodies through His Spirit who dwells in you.
KJV: But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.
Question: Why is the second usage of "Jesus" removed from the KJV?

Romans 11:22
NASB: Behold then the kindness and severity of God; to those who fell, severity, but to you, God's kindness, if you continue in His kindness; otherwise you also will be cut off.
KJV: Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.
Question: Why is "God's" removed from the KJV?

1 Corinthians 1:29
NASB: so that no man may boast before God.
KJV: That no flesh should glory in his presence.
Question: Why is "God" removed and replaced with a "his" instead?

1 Corinthians 6:11
NASB: Such were some of you; but you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.
KJV: And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God.
Question: Why is "Christ" removed from the KJV?

Ephesians 3:6
NASB: to be specific, that the Gentiles are fellow heirs and fellow members of the body, and fellow partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel.
KJV: That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel.
Question: Why is "Jesus" removed from the KJV?

James 4:12
NASB: There is only one Lawgiver and Judge, the One who is able to save and to destroy; but who are you who judge your neighbor?
KJV: There is one lawgiver, who is able to save and to destroy: who art thou that judgest another?
Question: Why is "and Judge" removed from the KJV?

1 Peter 2:2
NASB: like newborn babies, long for the pure milk of the word, so that by it you may grow in respect to salvation
KJV: As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby
Question: Why is "in respect to salvation" removed from the KJV?

Revelation 3:2
NASB: Wake up, and strengthen the things that remain, which were about to die; for I have not found your deeds completed in the sight of My God.
KJV: Be watchful, and strengthen the things which remain, that are ready to die: for I have not found thy works perfect before God.
Question: Why is "My" removed from the KJV?

Revelation 4:11
NASB: Worthy are You, our Lord and our God, to receive glory and honor and power; for You created all things, and because of Your will they existed, and were created.
KJV: Thou art worthy, O Lord, to receive glory and honour and power: for thou hast created all things, and for thy pleasure they are and were created.
Question: Why is "and our God" removed from the KJV?

Revelation 14:1
NASB: Then I looked, and behold, the Lamb was standing on Mount Zion, and with Him one hundred and forty-four thousand, having His name and the name of His Father written on their foreheads.
KJV: And I looked, and, lo, a Lamb stood on the mount Sion, and with him an hundred forty and four thousand, having his Father's name written in their foreheads.
Question: Why is "His name" (in reference to the Son) removed from the KJV?

 

[NetChaplain]

The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree.[Acts 5:30 KJV]

The God of our fathers raised Jesus, whom you killed by hanging him on a tree.[ESV]

The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom you had put to death by hanging Him on a cross.[NASBU]

The God of our ancestors raised Jesus from the dead—whom you killed by hanging him on a cross.[NIV]

The KJV absolutely dropped the ball here. They say Jesus was murdered and then hanged Him on a tree. He was murdered while on it, not before it. The KJV translators blew it here. Own it.

It was the plans of ignorant men (Luk 23:34) who established the death of the Lord Jesus. It depends on how you understand this issue. Technically, the ones who did the nailing led to His death; but it was Himself and not men who completed His own death.

 

[NetChaplain]

Omitted Scripture

Acts 7:20
NASB: It was at this time that Moses was born; and he was lovely in the sight of God, and he was nurtured three months in his father’s home.
KJV: In which time Moses was born, and was exceeding fair, and nourished up in his father's house three months
Question: Why is "in the sight of God" removed from the KJV when in the Greek text "God" (θεῷ) appears?

Acts 16:7
NASB: and after they came to Mysia, they were trying to go into Bithynia, and the Spirit of Jesus did not permit them
KJV: After they were come to Mysia, they assayed to go into Bithynia: but the Spirit suffered them not.
Question: Why is "of Jesus" removed from the KJV?

Acts 24:24
NASB: But some days later Felix arrived with Drusilla, his wife who was a Jewess, and sent for Paul and heard him speak about faith in Christ Jesus.
KJV: And after certain days, when Felix came with his wife Drusilla, which was a Jewess, he sent for Paul, and heard him concerning the faith in Christ.
Question: Why is "Jesus" removed from the KJV?

Romans 8:11
NASB: But if the Spirit of Him who raised Jesus from the dead dwells in you, He who raised Christ Jesus from the dead will also give life to your mortal bodies through His Spirit who dwells in you.
KJV: But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.
Question: Why is the second usage of "Jesus" removed from the KJV?

Romans 11:22
NASB: Behold then the kindness and severity of God; to those who fell, severity, but to you, God's kindness, if you continue in His kindness; otherwise you also will be cut off.
KJV: Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.
Question: Why is "God's" removed from the KJV?

1 Corinthians 1:29
NASB: so that no man may boast before God.
KJV: That no flesh should glory in his presence.
Question: Why is "God" removed and replaced with a "his" instead?

1 Corinthians 6:11
NASB: Such were some of you; but you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.
KJV: And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God.
Question: Why is "Christ" removed from the KJV?

Ephesians 3:6
NASB: to be specific, that the Gentiles are fellow heirs and fellow members of the body, and fellow partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel.
KJV: That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel.
Question: Why is "Jesus" removed from the KJV?

James 4:12
NASB: There is only one Lawgiver and Judge, the One who is able to save and to destroy; but who are you who judge your neighbor?
KJV: There is one lawgiver, who is able to save and to destroy: who art thou that judgest another?
Question: Why is "and Judge" removed from the KJV?

1 Peter 2:2
NASB: like newborn babies, long for the pure milk of the word, so that by it you may grow in respect to salvation
KJV: As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby
Question: Why is "in respect to salvation" removed from the KJV?

Revelation 3:2
NASB: Wake up, and strengthen the things that remain, which were about to die; for I have not found your deeds completed in the sight of My God.
KJV: Be watchful, and strengthen the things which remain, that are ready to die: for I have not found thy works perfect before God.
Question: Why is "My" removed from the KJV?

Revelation 4:11
NASB: Worthy are You, our Lord and our God, to receive glory and honor and power; for You created all things, and because of Your will they existed, and were created.
KJV: Thou art worthy, O Lord, to receive glory and honour and power: for thou hast created all things, and for thy pleasure they are and were created.
Question: Why is "and our God" removed from the KJV?

Revelation 14:1
NASB: Then I looked, and behold, the Lamb was standing on Mount Zion, and with Him one hundred and forty-four thousand, having His name and the name of His Father written on their foreheads.
KJV: And I looked, and, lo, a Lamb stood on the mount Sion, and with him an hundred forty and four thousand, having his Father's name written in their foreheads.
Question: Why is "His name" (in reference to the Son) removed from the KJV?

All of the passages you provided are from the Minority Manuscripts, and they often interpolate (add) many passages. Looking at Strong's Greek listings shows the most informative source. I want to list only this one for an example of hundreds they interpolate, transpose (rearrange the wording); but the omissions are the worst travesties (Mat 4:4)!

Strong's Greek concordance for Acts 7:20: In G1722 which G3739 time G2540 Moses G3475 was born, G1080 and G2532 was G2258 exceeding G2316 fair, G791 and G3739 nourished up G397 in G1722 his G846 father's G3962 house G3624 three G5140 months: G3376. https://www.blueletterbible.org/kjv/act/7/20/ss1/s_1025020

 

[Fred]

All of the passages you provided are from the Minority Manuscripts, and they often interpolate (add) many passages.

You assume they were added.
I can just as well equally assume the KJV took them away.

So far, the passages I referred to from the NASB demonstrates the fact that Jesus is God more often and more clearly than the KJV.

 

[NetChaplain]

You assume they were added.
I can just as well equally assume the KJV took them away.

So far, the passages I referred to from the NASB demonstrates the fact that Jesus is God more often and more clearly than the KJV.

Isn't it that Jesus being the Son of God has more relation to our salvation than thinking He is God? If a translation doesn't parallel Strong's concordance, then it's from the Minority Text (Vaticanus, Sinaiticus, Alexzandrinus).