Josheb said: The necessity of particular intent has not been explained or justified. There are five pages worth of posts into this discussion, and no one has provided any justification for the question this op asks.
For
@Josheb :
The answer is Yes.
God is the only uncaused fact. (All else is result of his causing—do I need to prove that, or are we good, here?)
God knew that Adam would fall before he caused anything.
God caused everything anyway,
Thus we can see that God INTENDED that Adam would fall.
Post #106 is a little misleading because it reads is if my answer to the question asked in the op is "
Yes, and 'yes, because there can be no other cause of anything other than God," and that is not my answer.
My answer is "
No, because it is improper to presuppositionally assume particular divine intent regarding Adam's disobedience,"* and I, therefore, think it incumbent upon anyone who thinks intent relevant to provide a scripture-based rational case for that necessity.
God being the only uncaused fact does not make that case. Neither does God omniscient foreknowledge. The statement "God caused everything anyway," is factually, logically, an logically incorrect
and that God is a much lesser god than the God of scripture. Any superior life form can make action figures that do only what they are made to do. All the human creatures living today can do
that, even in their sinful stated. That statement, and its strict determinism 1) does not exalt God; it diminishes Him and 2) is wholly inconsistent with Covenant Theology
and the Covenant of Redemption
(which are stipulations of the op). Covenant Theology and the covenant of Redemption openly reject the position God
caused sin. WCF .1 explicitly states God is not the author of sin. Furthermore, the op does not ask about
cause. It asks about intent. Did God intend Adam's disobedience. God intending the means of Adam's disobedience is not identical nor synonymous with God causing Adam to disobey or God intending Adam to disobey.
If everything in the last stanza, that syllogism, of Post 106 is intended to be
your answer to the op, then I will leave the op to discuss that position with you while I await an explanation for the necessity of specific divine intent regarding Adam's fall. I find the third statement in that stanza unscriptural, illogical, inconsistent with the theological parameters stipulated by the op and, therefore, untenable for the reasons I have already posted.
While AI is never considered authoritative of anything, I encourage everyone to do a little experiment and Google, "did god intend the fall of adam into sin?" and read the resutlts. Then modify the search request to.....
"did god intend the fall of adam into sin? ligonier"
"did god intend the fall of adam into sin? rc sproul"
"did god intend the fall of adam into sin? john white"
"did god intend the fall of adam into sin? james frame"
"did god intend the fall of adam into sin? aw pink"
"did god intend the fall of adam into sin? john calvin"
"did god intend the fall of adam into sin? covenant theology"
"did god intend the fall of adam into sin? theopedia"
"did god intend the fall of adam into sin? monergism.com"
It does not take long. In fact, because y'all can simply copy and paste the request, it will to you less time than it took me. Your results will likely differ from mine because the search algorithm tailors results to the individual's past internet usage but I think everyone will find some surprises. Many articles addressing the inquiry will also be generated but they will either answer the question similarly, or not actually answer the specific question at all (it's very common for the search results' articles to addrss the question by replacing "intent" with "cause" or "fall" with "original sin," etc. Y'all can also, if feeling so inclined, modify the request by replacing the word "intend" with "cause," but the general consensus in the thread appears to be that intent and cause are not synonymous so those results will be outside the purview of the op's specifics.
*
The use of the word "fall" has been accepted but, technically the theological use of "fall" pertains to what happened after Adam disobeyed God, not the disobedience itself. Adam disobeyed God, sin entered the world, and he and the world fell into sin.
.
