Odë:hgöd
Well Known Member
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When the Word of John 1:1 came into the world as the flesh of John 1:14, he didn't
come as divine flesh, rather, the Word came as typical Jewish flesh whose
genealogy traces its human origin all the way back to Adam: everyone's common
ancestor.
● Rom 8:3 . . God sent His own son in the likeness of sinful flesh.
A human origin for the Word's flesh was essential in order for Mary's son to fully qualify
for the throne given him by God per Luke 1:32-33, viz: the Word's flesh had to be one
of David's paternal descendants.
● Ps 132:11 . .The Lord has sworn in truth unto David; and He will not turn from it:
"Of the fruit of your body will I set upon your throne"
The New Testament verifies that the Word's flesh satisfies the paternal requirement.
● Acts 2:29-30 . . Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch
David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulcher is with us unto this day.
Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him,
that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on
his throne.
● Rom 1:1-3 . . Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David
according to the flesh
* Now in order for the Word's flesh to fully count as David's flesh, Mary's son had to
have David's blood instead of some other's blood because according to Lev 17:11,
the life of the flesh is in the blood.
So the million dollar question is: How can it be claimed that the Word's flesh is God
when Jesus' human origin came about by means of creatures the likes of Adam and
David?
We should probably take that up a notch by bringing in Matt 22:41-45 which says:
"While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them: What do you think
about the Christ? Whose son is he?
. .The son of David; they replied.
. . He said to them: How is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him Lord?
For he says: "The Lord said to my Lord: Sit at my right hand until I put your
enemies under your feet." If then David calls him Lord, how can he be his son?
You see, in that ancient Jewish social structure, fathers were supposed to be superior
to their sons. (Ex 20:12 & Mal 1:6)
_
When the Word of John 1:1 came into the world as the flesh of John 1:14, he didn't
come as divine flesh, rather, the Word came as typical Jewish flesh whose
genealogy traces its human origin all the way back to Adam: everyone's common
ancestor.
● Rom 8:3 . . God sent His own son in the likeness of sinful flesh.
A human origin for the Word's flesh was essential in order for Mary's son to fully qualify
for the throne given him by God per Luke 1:32-33, viz: the Word's flesh had to be one
of David's paternal descendants.
● Ps 132:11 . .The Lord has sworn in truth unto David; and He will not turn from it:
"Of the fruit of your body will I set upon your throne"
The New Testament verifies that the Word's flesh satisfies the paternal requirement.
● Acts 2:29-30 . . Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch
David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulcher is with us unto this day.
Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him,
that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on
his throne.
● Rom 1:1-3 . . Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David
according to the flesh
* Now in order for the Word's flesh to fully count as David's flesh, Mary's son had to
have David's blood instead of some other's blood because according to Lev 17:11,
the life of the flesh is in the blood.
So the million dollar question is: How can it be claimed that the Word's flesh is God
when Jesus' human origin came about by means of creatures the likes of Adam and
David?
We should probably take that up a notch by bringing in Matt 22:41-45 which says:
"While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them: What do you think
about the Christ? Whose son is he?
. .The son of David; they replied.
. . He said to them: How is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him Lord?
For he says: "The Lord said to my Lord: Sit at my right hand until I put your
enemies under your feet." If then David calls him Lord, how can he be his son?
You see, in that ancient Jewish social structure, fathers were supposed to be superior
to their sons. (Ex 20:12 & Mal 1:6)
_
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