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The Rapture or the Second Coming

see post 236.
Post #236 doesn't say anything that contributes to the conversation. Can you try and post without snark and deal with what is posted instead?
 
Then what is it?
Didn't my post suggest that you go find the answer to something that you identified as "sounds like" "could be"? Why are you asking me to do it for you?
If you say so. I disagree.
I am well aware of that. Why do you disagree? I would assume that since you disagree, you would be able to prove beyond a shadow of doubt that something else is true instead. That requires actual exegesis of scriptures, and comparing them to the overall Bible picture on the same subject, and not just your presuppositions as being the correct interpretation.
Jesus said, in my Fathers house there are many mansions...He says, I'll come back for you...take you there.
.........................................................................................................That's the rapture/resurrection
It means nothing when you insert an unsupported interpretive opinion into that passage, except that it won't be clearly saying that unless you do so.

The actual passage is John 14:1-3" where Jesus is comforting his disciples after he has told them that he is leaving---on the eve of his crucifixion. "Let not your hearts be troubled. Believe in God, believe also in me. "In my Father's house are many rooms (ESV some read "mansions") .If it were not so, would I have told you that I go to prepare a place for you. And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again and will take you to myself, that where I am you may be also."

Do you see how drastically you have read your pre-trib rapture supposition into that scripture? Do you think that is a proper way to interpret Scripture? And he told them about his preparing a place for them in chapter 13.
 
see post 236.
No one is disputing Jesus is coming back. The dispute is over the premise the rapture is separated from the so called "Second Coming." The two are not separate events. they are part of a sequence involved in the same event and they are not separated by years. This becomes increasingly understood when the particulars of modern futurism and the way modern futurists (mis)use scripture. I've been trying to get you and @brightfame52 to answer some very simple, basic questions that are directly related to statements the two of you have posted, such as, W


Where does scripture explicitly state the white horse left heaven?


But it proves impossible to have that kind of discussion with any modern futurist.
Can you show me a verse that explicitly states the Trinity? No connecting dots.
No, I cannot. The reason I cannot provide a verse that explicitly states the Trinity is because the word "trinity" is a man-made word that was coined after the canon of scripture was closed. What I can do is provide verses that explicitly state Christ's divinity and the Spirit's divinity. Because the word "trinity" is a doctrinal term AND because I can provide relevant explicit statements the appeal to the Trinity is a false equivalence.

Which means, once again, a modern futurist avoids questions that should be easily and readily answered honestly, defends his position with logical fallacy, and avoids the questions never answering them. It proves Dispensational Premillennialism (and the other versions of modern futurisms) are bad methodology, not just bad content, and the theology corrupts its adherent to do these things routinely without ever repenting aor ever being accountable for the subterfuge.

I've answered every op-relevant question I've been asked in this thread. You have not. Were you to ask me which verse explicitly states the white horse has left heaven I would provide and immediate, direct, honest, and correct answer: There is no verse that explicitly states any such thing. That position is reached solely by an inferential reading of scripture whereby the Dispensational Premillennial viewpoint is used as the measure of scripture.

But that is most definitely NOT what either of you have done. You haven't answered relevant questions when asked even though you could.


Josh: Which verse in the Bible explicitly states the white horse leaves heaven.
CrowCross: There is no verse that explicitly states any such thing. That position is reached solely by an inferential reading of scripture whereby the Dispensational Premillennial viewpoint is used as the measure of scripture.​
Josh: Thank you for that answer. I agree. Since there is no verse that actually states the white horse leaves heaven and that position is reached solely by inference, why do you favor an eisegetically inferential interpretation of scripture over a literal reading of what's stated, and a building of inferences based on what is explicitly stated?
CrowCross: Because scripture never mentions three-head ballywogs, some prophet mentioned horses, you're a (insert preferred epithet) , the tribulation is seven years long?, he's coming back soon and he wasn't riding a horse when he left, strawman, non sequitur, red herring, false equivalence, etc.​
Josh: Oh. I see. I'm not going to get an answer to the question asked, am I? Instead of an immediate, direct, honest and correct answer I'll have to ask the question multiple time and suffer through multiple pages of non-answers, digressions, and irrational commentary..... and in the end still never receive and actual answer to the question that was asked :(.


That is what it's like for every non-Dispensationalist trying to discuss Dispensational Premillennialism with a Dispensational Premillennialist in a nutshell. It simply cannot be done. The sad part is no modern futurist ever set out to be that kind of Christian! They do not set out to be individuals who cannot give a polite and respectfully, reasonable and rational, cogent and coherent case for what they believe, or individuals who will not be accountable for what they preach. Two Christians should never reach the point at which we're at in this thread! I've already provided the correct answer to the question asked but I am going to give you the opportunity to answer it anyway:

Which verse explicitly states the white horse left heaven?


There is a correct and answer and that correct answer is one that is very easy to provide. Once it is answered correctly and collaboratively, we might be able to move forward with the discussion of this op.
 
Mt 28:19?
Matt 23: 19 Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them inthe name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.

Some what correct but it is only one of the dots that can be connected that points to the Trinity.

The verse doesn't explicitly say that the Father is God.....all though other verses do.
The verse doesn't explicitly say that the Son is God.....all though other verses do.
The verse doesn't explicitly say that the Holy Spiritis God.....all though other verses do.
 
Post #236 doesn't say anything that contributes to the conversation. Can you try and post without snark and deal with what is posted instead?
Where is that verse snarky?

John 14:2 is just one of the dots that connect the rapture to a pre-trib rapture.
 
I am well aware of that. Why do you disagree? I would assume that since you disagree, you would be able to prove beyond a shadow of doubt that something else is true instead. That requires actual exegesis of scriptures, and comparing them to the overall Bible picture on the same subject, and not just your presuppositions as being the correct interpretation.
That is what I have done. I'm sorry if you have been taught to disagree with the exegesis of scripture.
The actual passage is John 14:1-3" where Jesus is comforting his disciples after he has told them that he is leaving---on the eve of his crucifixion. "Let not your hearts be troubled. Believe in God, believe also in me. "In my Father's house are many rooms (ESV some read "mansions") .If it were not so, would I have told you that I go to prepare a place for you. And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again and will take you to myself, that where I am you may be also."
If the rapture is at the end of the tribulation...why would Jesus take us to the mansions at the rapture then have us immediately return to establish the kingdom where we will live? That doesn't make sense.
 
No one is disputing Jesus is coming back. The dispute is over the premise the rapture is separated from the so called "Second Coming." The two are not separate events. they are part of a sequence involved in the same event and they are not separated by years. This becomes increasingly understood when the particulars of modern futurism and the way modern futurists (mis)use scripture. I've been trying to get you and @brightfame52 to answer some very simple, basic questions that are directly related to statements the two of you have posted, such as, W


Where does scripture explicitly state the white horse left heaven?
The Rider on the White Horse

Rev 19:11
Then I saw heaven standing open, and there before me was a white horse. And its rider is called Faithful and True. With righteousness He judges and wages war. 12He has eyes like blazing fire, and many royal crowns on His head. He has a name written on Him that only He Himself knows. 13He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood,c and His name is The Word of God.

14The armies of heaven, dressed in fine linen, white and pure, follow Him on white horses. 15And from His mouth proceeds a sharp sword with which to strike down the nations, and He will rule them with an iron scepter. He treads the winepress of the fury of the wrath of God the Almighty. 16And He has a name written on His robe and on His thigh:
KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS.

Zech 14 states.....3 Then the LORD will go out to fight against those nations, as He fights in the day of battle. 4 On that day His feet will stand on the Mount of Olives, east of Jerusalem, and the Mount of Olives will be split in two from east to west, forming a great valley, with half the mountain moving to the north and half to the south.

The verse doesn't explicitly say the white horse leave heaven....but....when you connect the dots of Rev 19 and Zech 14 much like you connect the dots of the Trinity....it's pretty easy to see the white horse Jesus is riding leaves heaven and brings Jesus to the Mt. of Olives.
 
The Rider on the White Horse

Rev 19:11
Then I saw heaven standing open, and there before me was a white horse. And its rider is called Faithful and True. With righteousness He judges and wages war. 12He has eyes like blazing fire, and many royal crowns on His head. He has a name written on Him that only He Himself knows. 13He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood,c and His name is The Word of God.

14The armies of heaven, dressed in fine linen, white and pure, follow Him on white horses. 15And from His mouth proceeds a sharp sword with which to strike down the nations, and He will rule them with an iron scepter. He treads the winepress of the fury of the wrath of God the Almighty. 16And He has a name written on His robe and on His thigh:
KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS.

Zech 14 states.....3 Then the LORD will go out to fight against those nations, as He fights in the day of battle. 4 On that day His feet will stand on the Mount of Olives, east of Jerusalem, and the Mount of Olives will be split in two from east to west, forming a great valley, with half the mountain moving to the north and half to the south.

The verse doesn't explicitly say the white horse leave heaven....but....when you connect the dots of Rev 19 and Zech 14 much like you connect the dots of the Trinity....it's pretty easy to see the white horse Jesus is riding leaves heaven and brings Jesus to the Mt. of Olives.
Seeing that you either will not or cannot answer the question correctly, even when the answer is given to you, I will move on.


Can you provide me with a verse that explicitly states the rapture is a completely separate event that is temporally removed from the second coming by a several years?

I am NOT asking for a verse that states something from which you infer a gap in time for two separated events. I am asking for a verse that explicitly states two separate events separated by many years. The answer should be, "No, I cannot. It is something I infer from one or two specific verses," because no such verse exists. After receiving a correct answer, I should then be able to ask you questions about the inferences you make (assuming the inferences will be acknowledged) but I suspect the question asked will not be answered correctly.




Can you provide me with a verse that explicitly states the rapture is a completely separate event that is temporally removed from the second coming by a several years?
 
Matt 23: 19 Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them inthe name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.

Some what correct but it is only one of the dots that can be connected that points to the Trinity.

The verse doesn't explicitly say that the Father is God.....all though other verses do.
The verse doesn't explicitly say that the Son is God.....all though other verses do.
The verse doesn't explicitly say that the Holy Spiritis God.....all though other verses do.
Surely, you know better than that. . .
 
That is what I have done. I'm sorry if you have been taught to disagree with the exegesis of scripture.
You have given no exegesis. I know you consider that you have, but you have not. All you have given is dispensational eisegesis.

Courtesy of ChatGPT (to save myself a lot of typing and of being accused of just giving my opinion).




Definition of Exegesis (in relation to Scripture):
Exegesis is the careful interpretation and explanation of a biblical text, seeking to draw out its original meaning as intended by the author in its historical, literary, and theological context. It involves analyzing the language, grammar, cultural background, and literary form of the passage in order to understand what it meant to its original audience before applying it to today.


Example of Exegesis:
Take Jeremiah 29:11“For I know the plans I have for you, declares the Lord, plans to prosper you and not to harm you, plans to give you hope and a future.”

  • Exegesis would note:
    • Historical context: This was written to the exiled Israelites in Babylon, who were facing 70 years in captivity (Jer. 29:10).
    • Meaning for the original audience: God reassured them that despite their present suffering, He had not abandoned them; their exile would end, and they would be restored.
    • Theological point: God’s sovereignty and covenant faithfulness ensured His people a future beyond judgment.
Thus, exegesis prevents us from treating the verse as a general guarantee of personal success, and instead shows it as God’s specific promise to Israel in exile—though principles of God’s faithfulness can still apply more broadly.




Eisegesis

  • Definition: Reading one’s own ideas, assumptions, or desires into the text rather than drawing out what is truly there.
  • Approach: “What do I want this text to say for me right now?”
  • Example:
    Using the same verse (Philippians 4:13), someone might claim:
    • “I can win any sports game or succeed in business because Christ strengthens me.”
    • That interpretation overlooks the context and imposes personal wishes onto the text.
  • Exegesis = text to us (God’s Word speaks as intended).
  • Eisegesis = us to text (we force our own meaning into it).
 
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If the rapture is at the end of the tribulation...why would Jesus take us to the mansions at the rapture then have us immediately return to establish the kingdom where we will live? That doesn't make sense.
Where does it say he takes us to the mansions at the rapture in that passage? Where does it even say anything about a tribulation? Read Rev 21. We MEET him in the air 1 Thess. He continues down with the saints he has gathered to him, his victorious train following behind our victorious King. This was the way in that ancient time. It is a historical application. Kings went out to battle, and as he returned in victory, his armies behind him, his people came to meet him and followed him in triumphant celebration into the city, shouting for joy. There would be a great feat.

Christ's kingdom is not Israel. It is the whole restored earth---the home God created for us. National Israel was real, but it was also a type.
 
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Where is that verse snarky?
I didn't say a VERSE was snarky.
John 14:2 is just one of the dots that connect the rapture to a pre-trib rapture.
It isn't a dot that connects it to any rapture. A rapture is neither mentioned nor implied in that passage. I showed you how your read your belief into that scripture by quoting the scripture. Then I asked if you could not see how you read that belief into it. But there was no acknowledgment that you could see it, and no answer to the question. You just said it was a connecting dot. It cannot be a connecting dot if you are reading into it something that is not there in order to connect it to something it is in no way connected to.

You are reading the dot into it. It is not there.
 
Where does it say he takes us to the mansions at the rapture in that passage? Where does it even say anything about a tribulation? Read Rev 21. We MEET him in the air 1 Thess. He continues down with the saints he has gathered to him, his victorious train following behind our victorious King. This was the way in that ancient time. It is a historical application. Kings went out to battle, and as he returned in victory, his armies behind him, his people came to meet him and followed him in triumphant celebration into the city, shouting for joy. There would be a great feat.

Christ's kingdom is not Israel. It is the whole restored earth---the home God created for us. National Israel was real, but it was also a type.
Are you proclaiming Jesus won't be taking us to the mansions in heaven?
 
Are you proclaiming Jesus won't be taking us to the mansions in heaven?
No, that is not what I am doing. Can you now address what was posted and deal with that. The above is no more than a diversional and deflective tactic.
 
The believer does not experience the wrath of God in the final judgment. Jesus did that for them.

Not precise enough. It is true, but Does not not account for where they are at that time called the day of His wrath,
 
A note for the OP:
in your list you mentioned that 'there is no judgement on earth at the rapture.' I cannot conclude this at all from the Thess materials.

But there is a sense about the 'coming' as mentioned in Acts 1 in which this is true. Notice in Acts 1 that when Jesus said he would come again as he left (the way he left right then), there was not a commotion of explosions and fire!

That's because, I think, he was referring to coming and helping them with the launch of the church. What he just finished was 40 days of teaching from the Scriptures. He may even have meant Pentecost. If you know Peter's failures, He definitely helped Peter 3x (three--to match Peter's denials?) It can be used of many instances in Acts when Jesus helped or was seen standing in heaven or appeared or spoke. You could even say the seizure of Paul was another way of coming and helping.
 
A note for the OP:
in your list you mentioned that 'there is no judgement on earth at the rapture.' I cannot conclude this at all from the Thess materials.

But there is a sense about the 'coming' as mentioned in Acts 1 in which this is true. Notice in Acts 1 that when Jesus said he would come again as he left (the way he left right then), there was not a commotion of explosions and fire!

That's because, I think, he was referring to coming and helping them with the launch of the church. What he just finished was 40 days of teaching from the Scriptures. He may even have meant Pentecost. If you know Peter's failures, He definitely helped Peter 3x (three--to match Peter's denials?) It can be used of many instances in Acts when Jesus helped or was seen standing in heaven or appeared or spoke. You could even say the seizure of Paul was another way of coming and helping.
1 Thes 4 is not about the forming of the church. How can we know this? There was no resurrection and rapture.
 
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