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The Fall, How?

What can you show me in scripture for proof that Adam desired to disobey God. Before they were deceived of course.
The conditions of the fall give a clue:

God had told Adam, and Eve NOT TO EAT OF ONE PARTICULAR TREE!!!

And yet there they were at that very tree thinking that: "the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise". (gen 3:6)

And, of course satan was there to "entice" them, and call GOD a liar, and somebody who wanted to keep them down under His thumb.

So why were they there, admiring the very tree that GOD HAD FORBIDDEN???

It's "Human Nature" to desire, what you've been ORDERED not to do. And some help from satan (who KNOWS what buttons to push) sent 'em over the edge. Just like it works in us.
 
I did say "desired to disobey God" but that is a misnomer really. It's more a matter of desiring something more than desiring obedience to God. Adam wasn't deceived, he knew he was not meant to eat but he did it anyway because he desired to eat rather than obey God.

You seem to be suggesting in your OP that Adam and Eve were created inherently good, at least in respect to their intentions, yet I see no good argument for it. Nor do I see how they could be created inherently good in respect to anything they were for God alone is inherently good (Matthew 19:17) and seeing as He is uncreated it would imply nothing can be created inherently good. However, I don't see that this limits God in declaring something to be good if it is created exactly in accordance with His will. And if Adam is created without bias of preference and is given perfect freedom to determine his own preference, then why cannot he be declared good even if he has no desire for good or evil.
I see what you are saying and have no problem with it, as all we can do at best is speculate, keeping as close as we can to what else the Bible shows us after the fall.

But to me, the real issue, however it is perceived, is that God did not create evil in Adam and Eve, nor did He create a propensity (sin nature) in them. The nature to sin came into all men through the sin of one man. Before they ate of the tree they had no experience of evil and no knowledge of it. All they had was the command which itself implies a choice, but not a coercion, and not a bent in them towards evil.

Eve desired the fruit because she was deceived by what the serpent said and that is what made her desire the fruit. The Bible of course does not say why Adam ate, nor does it matter.
 
Well, I wasn't negating law, I was just not ascribing the word "covenant" to the law of Genesis 2:17.

There are no stated conditional agreements (covenants) in the OT that are not bilateral (viz, Abrahamic, Gen 17; and Sinaitic, Ex 19-24), which God's command or law in the garden was not.

Again, this is not the thread for a discussion like this, but the elements of a covenant are definitely present in Genesis, including bilateral stipulations and promises. And there is precedent in scriptures for a specific relationship to not be called a covenant until later, as in 2 Samuel 7 or 1 Chronicles 17 (cf. 2 Sam. 23:5; Ps. 89:3, 28; 132:11-12). A similar situation occurs with Genesis 1–3 (cf. Hos 6:7). In a natural Creator-creature relationship obedience is required, but for there to be a special relationship that offered mankind a reward for obedience, a covenant relationship was needed.

Louis Berkhof, Systematic Theology (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans, 1941), 213–17; Herman Witsius, The Economy of the Covenants Between God and Man: Comprehending a Complete Body of Divinity, trans. William Crookshank, 2 vols. (1677; Escondido, CA: den Dulk Christian Foundation, 1990), 1:50–103; Francis Turretin, Institutes of Elenctic Theology, trans. George Musgrave Giger, ed. James T. Dennison Jr. (Phillipsburg, NJ: P&R, 1992), 1:580-582; Gregory K. Beale, A New Testament Biblical Theology: The Unfolding of the Old Testament in the New (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Academic, 2011), 29-45; Meredith G. Kline, Kingdom Prologue: Genesis Foundations for a Covenantal Worldview (Overland Park, KS: Two Age, 2000), 103-107; Andrew A. Woolsey, Unity and Continuity in Covenantal Thought: A Study in the Reformed Tradition to the Westminster Assembly (Grand Rapids, MI: Reformation Heritage Books, 2012), 49.
 
This is pretty much old news, is it not?

Not in my experience, at least. I am accustomed to people conflating wrong and sin as one and the same thing.


From their (human) perspective, sure. But you are also speaking from the perspective that there were humans before Adam. So, you must prove that first, I would say.

Two things. First, I was talking about the fact that (a) humans are not unique with respect to wrongdoing, but (b) they are entirely unique with respect to sin—either one of which points you were free to contest. The latter point (humans are the only natural creatures who sin) has nothing to do with those who lived prior to Adam and the garden because, on this view, there was no such thing as sin until that covenant relationship between God and mankind inaugurated in Eden.

Second, this answer to your original question is produced by my particular view of Genesis and human origins. Your question pertains to Adam and Eve and the fall, specifically their nature and motives, and not to human origins. In other words, it's perfectly valid to assume for the sake of argument a particular view of human origins because it doesn't beg the question (or assume the very thing to be proved). It would be like an atheist saying, "You are speaking from the perspective that God exists. So, you would have to prove that first." That's not true. It is perfectly valid to assume things for the sake of argument, as long as it doesn't beg the very question.

Perhaps in order to convince you (that there were humans prior to Adam) I would need to prove it, but I am not trying to convince you. We are all just providing views that we think answer your question, each of which have their own strengths and weaknesses. This one I think has the greatest strengths and least weaknesses. What do you think? What are its strengths and weaknesses?


It seems something that God put in place.

What is?


Sin has always been sin.

Agreed. And nothing I said suggested otherwise.


And Adam was not the first sinner, Satan was.

We are speaking of the human sphere—at least your original post was. In the perceived context of the thread, Adam was the first sinner. Whether from the perspective of my view or young-earth creationism, Adam was the first sinner. If you were talking about sin per se and Satan and his cohorts, that was not even remotely obvious in your OP.


And no one would have known if the law did not reveal it. May I suggest adding Romans 7 to your study?

Instead of uncharitably and rudely assuming that I haven't considered Romans 7, instead assume that I have and raise the relevant point that applies to my view.

Again, I said that "once that covenant relationship was established, however, sin became a potential—but not an actuality until Adam disobeyed God." Exactly how does this conflict with Romans 7? Please be specific.


So, you're suggesting all those born and who lived before Adams sin, we sinless?

Yes, I am suggesting that all those who lived and died prior to the covenant relationship between God and mankind were sinless, in the same way that dolphins, bears, and elephants are sinless—because, as I said, "there is no such thing as sin apart from a covenant relationship with God." I am open to correction, however. (And, again, we are dealing with the human realm, natural life here on Earth.)


This is a whole different subject which you would need to prove first.

I disagree, because it does not pertain to your question about Adam and Eve and the fall, specifically their nature and motives.
 
Yes, I am suggesting that all those who lived and died prior to the covenant relationship between God and mankind were sinless, in the same way that dolphins, bears, and elephants are sinless—because, as I said, "there is no such thing as sin apart from a covenant relationship with God."
The question that I have to ask at this point is ... "Are they sinless because they have no covenant with God or are they sinless because they are not created in the image of God? In other words, are they sinless because they don't have the intellectual capacity and volitional freedom a human does and therefore cannot be held responsible?

I also wonder if the very act of creation itself implies a covenant for even the animals by nature will care for their young. Of course there are exceptions to this but we live in a fallen world handed over to the "vanity" of sin. As a comparison in the New Creation, one ruled by God's will, the wolf and lamb lay down together.

Romans 8:19-21

19 For the earnest expectation of the creation eagerly waits for the revealing of the sons of God. 20 For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of Him who subjected it in hope; 21 because the creation itself also will be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the children of God.

Isaiah 11:6
“The wolf also shall dwell with the lamb, The leopard shall lie down with the young goat, The calf and the young lion and the fatling together; And a little child shall lead them.
 
The question that I have to ask at this point is, "Are they sinless because they have no covenant with God, or because they are not created in the image of God?"

As I see it, the latter is tied to the former, wherein God does not authorize a vocation—image-bearer in this case—outside of a covenant relationship.

That being said, I am positing that they were sinless because the sine qua non for defining sin—a covenant relationship with God—did not yet exist. On this view, that covenant relationship was inaugurated through Adam in the garden roughly 6,000 years ago. Are dolphins, bears, or elephants sinners? No, and neither were these prehistoric humans.


In other words, are they sinless because they don't have the intellectual capacity and volitional freedom a human does and therefore cannot be held responsible?

Well, I was thinking of anatomically modern humans (as opposed to extinct archaic human species), whose brains were the same size as ours and had been for a couple hundred thousand years. And they have been behaviorally modern for the last 50,000 years. In other words, the people I had in mind definitely had the same intellectual capacities and volitional freedoms.

But if God had not yet revealed himself covenantally to man, then in what sense could anything those people did be considered a sin?


I also wonder if the very act of creation itself implies a covenant, for even the animals by nature will care for their young.

Not on my view, but you're certainly free to explore the idea for yourself. As I said somewhere else, on my view a covenant is a solemn promise that functions as a verbal, legal instrument to define a relationship of loyalty. That first appeared "in the beginning" of redemptive history with Adam as our federal head.
 
As I said somewhere else, on my view a covenant is a solemn promise that functions as a verbal, legal instrument to define a relationship of loyalty. That first appeared "in the beginning" of redemptive history with Adam as our federal head.
If that appeared at the beginning of redemptive history doesn't that mean you are saying the covenant began after Adam sinned? Sounds like a Catch 22 to me.
 
If that appeared at the beginning of redemptive history doesn't that mean you are saying the covenant began after Adam sinned? Sounds like a Catch 22 to me.

No, the covenant of works began before Adam sinned. When Adam ate of the forbidden tree, he became a covenant-breaker, transgressing the terms of the existing covenant.
 
No, the covenant of works began before Adam sinned. When Adam ate of the forbidden tree, he became a covenant-breaker, transgressing the terms of the existing covenant.
Then do you mind telling me what verse you consider establishes the covenant please? (save me going back through all your other posts) :)
 
Then do you mind telling me what verse you consider establishes the covenant please? (save me going back through all your other posts) :)

There is no verse to which I can point and establish the matter. In fact, I sort of recoil at even the idea of doing so, for it has been many years since I was one of those Baptists who went around proof-texting doctrines (with the only Bible version authorized by God). But maybe not enough years have gone by, as it seems that I'm still sensitive to that.

What you do is determine a biblically consistent definition of covenant, make sure it fits the examples of covenant throughout scripture, identify the essential elements of covenant, and then take all that to the first three chapters of Genesis and see whether or not what happened in the garden applies. (It does.) Paul's epistles are especially helpful, particularly where he contrasts Adam and Christ using covenantal language. It's also suggestive that God identifies himself to Adam with a name of covenantal lordship, YHWH Elohim.
 
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