Mr GLee
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As one is born . The resultVery good again. Even as becoming a freedman, when born again.
As one is born . The resultVery good again. Even as becoming a freedman, when born again.
Nowhere does it say man has a freewill, he is a slave to sin. Just because a person purposes something in their heart doesnt make their will free from sin nor the sovereignty of God. I see your desperationI don't argue with unbelief covered by senseless sophistry.
Which is why sinners still have their created freewill, to give a freewill offering for good or bad reasons.
2Co 9:7 Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth a cheerful giver.
Anyone created by God with the purpose to do evil, can give no freewill offering, but only by necessity according to God's purpose. As with the beasts of the field, all things are done by necessity alone, not by freewill from the heart.
Denying man freewill from God, is denying being made in His image, and making man to be the same as brute beasts.
2 Peter{2:12} But these, as natural brute beasts, made to be taken and destroyed, speak evil of the things that they understand not; and shall utterly perish in their own corruption;
Already answered.
Your habit is to ignore arguments you don't agree with, and just teach what you already believe for yourself. It's every person's God-given right and freedom to believe what they will, but it doesn't disprove any argument to the contrary.
When I read your post I don't see you connecting the dots.The same reason some choose to repent or not.
Ezek 18:31Cast away from you all your transgressions, whereby ye have transgressed; and make you a new heart and a new spirit: for why will ye die, O house of Israel?
I don't read in Scripture any answer to God's own pleading question? If God doesn't know why? Do you?
Predeterminism is man's vain effort to explain what God cannot explain, which in itself is just more philosophy of man. But it becomes evil by concluding it's God's fault for creating man to do evil.
Jas 1:13Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.
Predeterminism is a Christian version of fatalist pagan gods, that are worshipped as evil, and loved for the evil they make them do.
That explains why evil men worship evil gods, but it still does not explain why any man would lust against the true God and good Creator to their own destruction.
Yes he is the "Let there be" names writen in the lambs book of eternal life. . slain from the foundation .the six day the father did work. "and it was Christ alone good " .When I read your post I don't see you connecting the dots.
I see you confusing predeterminism and fatalism with predestination, the doctrine that God chooses those who go to heaven before they are even born.
Because they inherit Adam's fallen nature and his sin is imputed to them (Ro 5:12-14, 18-19).Why do all men sin and fall short of the glory of God?
I'm undecided as to whether Adams sin are imputed to men...but I do know the fallen nature of Adam is.Because they inherit Adam's fallen nature and his sin is imputed to them (Ro 5:12-14, 18-19).
Man is not a sinner because he sins, man sins because he is born a sinner, by nature an object of wrath (Eph 2:3).
See Ro 5:14, 17 where the imputation of Adam's sin to those of Adam, between Adam and Moses who had no sin accounted to them but died anyway (sin being the cause of death, Ro 6:23) was the pattern of the one to come (Christ, whose righteousness is likewise imputed to those of Christ, Ro 5:18-19).I'm undecided as to whether Adams sin are imputed to men...but I do know the fallen nature of Adam is.
I do agree that "Man is not a sinner because he sins, man sins because he is born a sinner, by nature an object of wrath (Eph 2:3)."
God defines the words He uses by His sensible use of them in Scripture. Freewill offereings are by freewill: Freely given corresponds to freely eating."Rather than Romans 9 confirming predeterminism, the Scripture rebukes it and confirms the free will of man created in God's image."
- What is meant by "free will" is left unstated. This failure means that people will inevitably talk past each other due to differing definitions.
Arguing whether God is a libertarian or not, is not an argument against freewill. Freewill is the liberty to choose to be a libertarian, nihilist, marxist, royalist, hermit, etc...
- God's image cannot entail libertarian freedom, since God does not have libertarian freedom. This would be a non-sequitur fallacy.
If you read past the opening, you'll see the Scriptures quoted in italics.
- As of yet, an actual verse in R9 has not been presented. But that's fine since this is the opening.
True. The discipline of rightly dividing the word of truth demands objectivity."The error is by people plucking certain Scriptures out of context, which changes the truth into a lie. Many do so as a novice mistake, and some do so willfully to confirm their own lies."
- The main problem is a lack of objective grounding.
Sufficiently for me. If you see error in it, then show where. Otherwise, people have freewill to disagree, but it does nothing to disprove anything.
- No objective evidence is given of people taking Scripture out of context. It is here asserted, but not demonstrated.
Again, sufficiently for me.
- The statement of "novice mistake" is again not demonstrated but rather baselessly asserted.
Are you saying God does not have the right to choose and elect His people? Or, that His election is not only after creation in the womb, or after birth?"The context of Romans 9 is twofold: God has the right to choose and elect His people. And that right is exercised only after being created, not before. And, God also has right to judge all men, which is only by our works, not by our birth."
- We are told what the context is, but we do not see any objective evidence for the context being what is stated. Where is the scripture that establishes the context you are asserting?
Correct. One is for election, and the other is for judgment.
- We can read "judge all men, which is only by our works." But then we see the words in v10 quoted, "election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth."
Only if speaking of the same thing. One is election of the chosen, and the other is judgment of all men.
- Scripture says "not of works," but the opening post says "by our works."
- This is a direct contradiction.
Free will in its one use in Scripture means voluntary.God defines the words He uses by His sensible use of them in Scripture. Freewill offereings are by freewill: Freely given corresponds to freely eating.
2Co 9:7 Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth a cheerful giver.
Freely eating and giving is further called cheerfulness, which is by freely purposing in our own hearts, without necessity of doing something else.
Predeterminism makes all things done by necessity with freewill, even as beasts of the field. They can only do what they were purposed to do by creation by necessity, not by free choice.
Only by freewill can anything be done cheerfully. Brute beasts only do what is necessary, without any good cheer.
Arguing whether God is a libertarian or not, is not an argument against freewill. Freewill is the liberty to choose to be a libertarian, nihilist, marxist, royalist, hermit, etc...
God's gvt is a monarchial theocracy, who King and Lord is Jesus Christ.
If you read past the opening, you'll see the Scriptures quoted in italics.
True. The discipline of rightly dividing the word of truth demands objectivity.
That's why the Lord Jesus says we must always come to Him as little children, without any bias and personal agenda. As well as without any learned letters of philosophy, theology, mysticism, traditions, etc...that would cloud the simple meaning of what He says.
Sufficiently for me. If you see error in it, then show where. Otherwise, people have freewill to disagree, but it does nothing to disprove anything.
Again, sufficiently for me.
Are you saying God does not have the right to choose and elect His people? Or, that His election is not only after creation in the womb, or after birth?
Or, are you saying these things are not just sufficiently proven by the Scriptural argument? If so, then first show the insufficiency of the argument that is given.
Correct. One is for election, and the other is for judgment.
The election of the chosen is not of works, and the judgment of all men is by works, both chosen and unchosen alike.
1 Peter {1:15} But as he which hath called you is holy, so be ye holy in all manner of conversation; {1:16} Because it is written, Be ye holy; for I am holy. {1:17} And if ye call on the Father, who without respect of persons judgeth according to every man’s work, pass the time of your sojourning [here] in fear:
The elect are judged by their works at the judgment seat of Christ. The rest of the dead are judged by their works at the GWT.
Only if speaking of the same thing. One is election of the chosen, and the other is judgment of all men.
Here you show the difference between having freewill to resist the will of the Lord, vs having freedom to stop His will from being done.Job 23:13 But he is in one mind, and who can turn him? and what his soul desireth, even that he doeth. For he performeth the thing that is appointed for me: and many such things are with him.Therefore am I troubled at his presence: when I consider, I am afraid of him. For God maketh my heart soft, and the Almighty troubleth me:
No man can turn him? Why would anyone desire to be like God and ascend to above the cloud of his presence.? Like a Pope
No problem. Man is created in the image of God with voluntary will to do or not do good or evil.Free will in its one use in Scripture means voluntary.
Exactly. Only born sons of God have the free power to wilfully do His righteousness without lust and sin.Free will is the power to execute all moral choices, including the choice to be sinless.
True. As do all men created in the image of God by Jesus Christ, and lightened by Him from the womb. It's only when men sin as Adam, that the power to serve Him with a pure heart is lost.Adam had complete free will.
He lost his power to obey God with a pure heart. By creation he could still freely choose to do good deads, but not with justification in service to God.He lost it in the fall by choosing sin (disobedience to God) instead of obedience.
True. As with Adam, every man that sins, loses the power to serve God with a pure heart. But as with Adam, all men still have the freewill by creation to do good deeds, but only in service to himself, family, coummunity, but no more to God and His righteous kingdom.Now unregenerate man does not have the power to execute all moral choices, for he is a slave to sin (Jn 8:34 Ro 7:25, 11:32, Gal 3:22).
All freewill of men on earth is limited by natural law. Even as all freewill of angels in heaven is limited by divine law.His free will is limited. .
True again. Even when choosing to do a good dead, the sinner is still not justified with God by corruption of lust in the heart..now unregenerate man chooses what he prefers, self over God.
I see your desparation to ignore what I write, and only repeat yourself.Nowhere does it say man has a freewill, he is a slave to sin. Just because a person purposes something in their heart doesnt make their will free from sin nor the sovereignty of God. I see your desperation
Show the disconnect, and maybe I can do better at connecting them.When I read your post I don't see you connecting the dots.
Which is why I only show Scriptures against predeterminist fatalism, not against Scriptural predestination.I see you confusing predeterminism and fatalism with predestination, the doctrine that God chooses those who go to heaven before they are even born.
Nowhere does it say man has a freewill, he is a slave to sin. Any heathen idolator can give a freewill offering, that's not the same thing, you desperate.I see your desparation to ignore what I write, and only repeat yourself.
When you want to quote me and show any error in it, then I'd be glad to see it. Otherwise, I responded to what you teach the first time.
Hi thanks for the replyHere you show the difference between having freewill to resist the will of the Lord, vs having freedom to stop His will from being done.
Freewill is power to choose good or evil, when the will of God for all men is to do good. Our freewill is not power to stop God's will from judging us by our works.
Pharoah resisted the will of God to let His people go, but He could not resist God's will to set His people free. As God's will became more purposed in works, Pharaoh's heart became more hardened in destruction.
I don't see it. Sorry.See Ro 5:14, 17 where the imputation of Adam's sin to those of Adam, between Adam and Moses who had no sin accounted to them but died anyway (sin being the cause of death, Ro 6:23) was the pattern of the one to come (Christ, whose righteousness is likewise imputed to those of Christ, Ro 5:18-19).
Sanctification doesn't happen overnight.Predeterminism, as you say, is God prechoosing who will be His elect before birth. (And as is usually the case, I've never heard from any of the prechosen elite, who actually say they are now conformed to the image of Jesus Christ...)
Man is not free to live a perfectly sinless life.No problem. Man is created in the image of God with voluntary will to do or not do good or evil.
Beasts of the field have no voluntary will. They have no freedom to do other than their created purpose.
Since God creates all creatures for the good, man's voluntary will proves his separation from natural brute beasts, by voluntarily choosing to do evil, rather than good.
Man without free voluntary will is as a brute beast, with no power to do other than as nature demands.
Rom 1:26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
And, denying man's freewill is the natural man rejecting creation in God's image.
2Pe 2:12But these, as natural brute beasts, made to be taken and destroyed, speak evil of the things that they understand not; and shall utterly perish in their own corruption;
The cause of death is sin (Ro 6:23).I don't see it. Sorry.
Yes, Adam was the cause of death...the fall....the reason why we sin....but is the actual sin committed by Adam imputed to us or is it the result of the sin of Adam....the change in us...imputed to us and is now our nature?