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Free will--a Calvinistic proposition?

Except that I will also repeat my answer so that it is plain for all to see in the present conversation.

Tizoc was given the light of creation (Romans 1) and the light of conscience (Romans 2). If he would have obeyed those lights, he would have been presented with the light of Christ.

In being given those two lights he was in fact being drawn to Christ.
Good answer. (y)
I disagree, but it was a coherent, logically sound and scripturally supportable response.
Now we can simply agree to disagree on the exegesis, shake hands and part ... each answerable to our OWN conscience.
 
And you make your choice accordingly.

But if, in being drawn to Christ, you are shown the sheer folly of your position, you may decide to believe in, receive, and follow Christ!
Let's set aside the meaning you give to being drawn to Christ and look at what Jesus says it means.
John 6:35-37


35 Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life; whoever comes to me shall not hunger, and whoever believes in me shall never thirst. 36 But I said to you that you have seen me and yet do not believe. 37 All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out.
John 6:39-40
39 And this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up on the last day. 40 For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.”
John 6:44
44 No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him. And I will raise him up on the last day.
John 6:60
60 When many of his disciples heard it, they said, “This is a hard saying; who can listen to it?”
John 6:65
65 And he said, “This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father.”

In verse 65 Jesus tells us what He meant in verse 44. After reading that, what do you say being drawn to Christ means according to Christ?
 
Excuse me, missy, but I am not the one who called you a troll. on more than one occasion.
Well, which is it? You did not call me a troll? Or your called me one on more than one occasion?

What does that have to do with the post you responded to? (Another example of trolling.)

Internet definition of a troll.



In slang, a troll is a person who posts or makes inflammatory, insincere, digressive,[1] extraneous, or off-topic messages online (such as in social media, a newsgroup, a forum, a chat room, an online video game) or in real life, with the intent of provoking others into displaying emotional responses,[2] or manipulating others' perception, thus acting as a bully or a provocateur. The behavior is typically for the troll's amusement, or to achieve a specific result such as disrupting a rival's online activities or purposefully causing confusion or harm to other people.[3]

An internet troll is someone who makes intentionally inflammatory, rude, or upsetting statements online to elicit strong emotional responses in people or to steer the conversation off-topic. They can come in many forms. Most trolls do this for their own amusement, but other forms of trolling are done to push a specific agenda.
 
When we receive our glorified bodies, do we cease to be made in the image of God?
Questions don't answer questions. Are you presupposing that God in His sovereignty chose to give some of His sovereignty to men and angels? Or is that something the Bible tells us?
I guess I know more of what the Bible says than you do.
What makes you think you know more what the Bible says than I do? It seems to me in all these exchanges that you make the Bible mean what you want it to mean. And really not the Bible as a whole consistent unit, but only by way of certain scriptures that evidently don't need to find their meaning in context. You have demonstrated this again and again. But don't take my word for it, ask any Calvinist in this thread or the duplicate threads you made.
Nope.


Again, nope.
I don't have any way of responding to posts that can't get farther than nope, nope.
Yes, we love Him because He first loved us; however, His love for us does not guarantee that we will love Him in return.

And He chooses us on the basis of foreknowledge (Romans 8:29, 1 Peter 1:2).
Nope.
 
Romans 10:9,13, salvation is based on what the sinner does in response to being drawn to Christ.
Those who call on the name of the Lord are the elect and only the elect. Romans 8:28-30; John 6:35-65; John 6:37; John 17:24;John 10:29;John 1:12-13; Acts 13:48.
Those who confess Him are those who have been regenerated.

Salvation does not come by doing certain things as though it were a formula. It comes by BELIEVING.
 
Statement 1:
It is not my contention that the will is free at any point wherein the person is not being drawn to Christ.
Statement 2:
My belief is that everyone has an unhindered ability to make a free decision to receive or reject Christ at whatever juncture in their lives that they are being drawn to Him (2 Corinthians 3:17).
You can't have it both ways. You can't say that nothing hinders/unhinders the ability to make a free decision (Statement 2) and also say a person must be drawn to Christ (statement 1). Your definition is invalid as it contradicts your statements or vise versa.
Aside: I rarely find a person on the arminian side that can define Free Will except in an obtuse manner.

It is my contention that where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty / freedom (2 Corinthians 3:17)
Again you use the word FREEDOM but don't define it. Free from what/who?
Aside: Both side agree that a person is not "FORCED" to believe salvificly or not. My side says God changes your heart and as a result you desire to believe. Since you won't define the adjective FREE in the term FREE WILL I am not sure what you see as the cause of someone believing salvifically. What caused you one day to believe salvificly? What caused you to change your mind? Who gave you the will to do "X" or "Y" or do you believe you created your will?

I am in agreement with the concept of total depravity which states that a man cannot come to Christ apart from being drawn to Christ.
Who/what drew you to Christ? What power overcame your proclivity to reject Christ? What changed?

Being drawn does not only consist of hearing the gospel about Christ...
You said everyone without exception is drawn to Christ. My point was to show this cannot be true as not all people hear the gospel which is a prerequisite of salvation.

You did not answer my question as to why, if people have a FREE WILL, why don't half of them believe? Some external force is obviously disrupting their supposed FREE WILL. Similarly, children of atheists and Muslims are much less likely to become believers. How can you say they have FREE WILL given this evidence. (again, you have not defined FREE WILL as you say it is not hindered and yet you say people must be drawn; if people don't hear of Christ they are hindered and therefore don't have Free Will).
 
No one can come to Christ unless they are drawn, that is true; however, this is not Irresistible Grace; because being drawn to Christ is not the same thing as, and does not guarantee, being given to Christ.
It is a guarantee because Jesus says those who are drawn will be raised up at the last day.
If it were or did, then all would be given = Universalism (heresy)...
Only if you incorrectly say all are drawn to Christ, which Calvinism does not say, and sometimes seem to be saying not all are drawn.
Because all are drawn at some specific point in their lives (John 12:32).
If that is what John 12:32 means then why did Jesus say in John 6 that those drawn are the ones granted to Him by the Father?
That they will be raised up on the last day does not guarantee salvation either; because

1) that would be Universalism again; and,

2) there is a resurrection unto damnation (John 5:29, Daniel 12:2).
It is only universalism if one thinks all men are drawn to Christ. And because you already believe that is what John 12 says, you then must look for a way to make John 6 not mean what it does mean. Does that entire discourse sound like it is discussing the resurrection of the dead in judgement? Or does it sound like He is telling those presente who He is and what He is going to do concerning His resurrection. Did He not say in the middle of it, 62 "Then what if you were to see the Son of Man ascending to where He was before?" Did He say in verse 35. Jesus said to them, "I am the bread of life; whoever comet to me shall not hunger, and whoever believes in me shall never thirst." 37. All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out." 39. And this is the will of Hm who sent Me, that I should lose nothing of all that He has given me, but raise it up on the last day. 40. For this the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in Him should have eternal life. and I will raise Him up on the last day."
When the Father draws a man to Christ, he is given an opportunity and is enabled to receive Christ; whereas previously there was an inability.

Being drawn to Christ overcomes that inability; while it does not guarantee that the person will come to Christ.
You have laid a presupposition onto the scriptures for what you say is not actually in them.
Therefore, in being drawn to Christ, the person is not going to not have a choice in the matter...he will be given a free will choice as to whether or not he will receive Christ.
No where in all of the NT do we see any form of the word choice or any reference to making a decision in any scripture that says any form of the words used to say what gives eternal life. They simply "believe".
 
Again I say to you, and verily, that not all who are drawn to Christ are necessarily given to Christ.

If that were the case, Universalism (which is heresy) would be the truth of the matter; because of John 12:32.
Then you show that you completely ignore what is clearly shown you from the scriptures and in them, and show that you have no intention in ever backing off your stance, and no interest in learning anything. Therefore your reason for doing all this is insincere. I assume it's a case of one thinking they know all things because they think 1John 2:20 and John 16:30 were only written to/about them, therefore whatever they think a scripture means is what it means because there is no way they could be wrong.
 
It is always "this logical fallacy or that one" with you...
That is because you use nothing but logical fallacies in your arguments. Do you even know what a logical fallacy is? There are many different types of them and I think you have probably covered the gambit.
which indicates that you are in debate mode;

which is a sinful mode to be in (Romans 1:29 and context, 2 Corinthians 12:20 and context).
There is nothing wrong with debating. What do you think forums are for? I already addressed those scriptures when you tried that tactic with someone else.
I am not here to debate personally, I am here to evangelize.
When are you going to start evangelizing?
If you want to debate, then I do not find you such as I would, and I am found to you such as ye would not; because debate is the atmosphere and this is not conducive to edifying discussions.
A sentence that makes no sense. But jbf none of the several op's that you started began with anything edifying but only in tearing down. And you have continued in that vein throughout. I have had enough and I think everyone else has too. So I will put you on a three day vacation to cool down, gather your thoughts, take counsel with God as to your own behavior, give the rest of us a breather. If you come back, try and do better.
 
It is not to my glory that my will is affected by the Spirit (and you apparently do not believe that this is true of anyone, that their will is affected by the Spirit; based on your statement). It is to the glory of the Lord.
Distortion of what I said.
 
@Arial said: That always happens when a person tries to refute truth with untruth by using the Bible to do it.
I don't understand. How is it an oxymoron? I will requote it so you don't get confused and lazy and simply reply off the top of your head not bother to care whether it relates to anything or not.

There are no untruths in the Bible; so no one would ever be able to refute a truth with an untruth in the Bible.
Right. That is what I said. You are trying to refute the truth and the reason you cannot is because you use the Bible wrongly interpreted and wrongly applied to attempt to do so.
 
It is not to my glory that my will is affected by the Spirit (and you apparently do not believe that this is true of anyone, that their will is affected by the Spirit; based on your statement). It is to the glory of the Lord.
My post required no response, especially if was not going to address what was done by you and instead defend yourself for doing it.
 
Well, which is it? You did not call me a troll? Or your called me one on more than one occasion?

What does that have to do with the post you responded to? (Another example of trolling.)

Internet definition of a troll.



In slang, a troll is a person who posts or makes inflammatory, insincere, digressive,[1] extraneous, or off-topic messages online (such as in social media, a newsgroup, a forum, a chat room, an online video game) or in real life, with the intent of provoking others into displaying emotional responses,[2] or others' perception, thus acting as a bully or a provocateur. The behavior is typically for the troll's amusement, or to achieve a specific result such as disrupting a rival's online activities or purposefully causing confusion or harm to other people.[3]

An internet troll is someone who makes intentionally inflammatory, rude, or upsetting statements online to elicit strong emotional responses in people or to steer the conversation off-topic. They can come in many forms. Most trolls do this for their own amusement, but other forms of trolling are done to push a specific agenda.
You called me a troll on more than one occasion; while according to the definition you have given above, I am not a troll.
 
@Arial, in response to something you said above.

It is my choice to believe that John 12:32 refers to all men without exception; just like it is your choice to believe that John 12:32 refers to all men without distinction.

Ultimately this is the choice between believing in man's responsibility or else God's culpability in man's condemnation.

If God chooses those who are saved, then by default He chooses whom He will not save; and in choosing them unto condemnation (ultimately not giving them a choice in the matter of whether or not they will be saved), He removes the responsibility of the sinner to make a decision to receive Christ since that is not the choice of the sinner but rather this is based on God's unconditional (arbitrary) decision.

If man has a choice in the matter of being saved when he is drawn; and also if every man is drawn; then every man is ultimately responsible for the decision that he will make.

This is perhaps one of the reasons why Calvinism has its appeal to so many; it removes man's responsibility as concerning his decision to receive or reject Christ (impaho).

However, ultimately, God does not send anyone to hell: rather, we send ourselves there when we reject God's offer of free provision to save us in the Cross of Christ.

But if it is ultimately God's decision, then man is not responsible for his rejection of Christ; for God has predetermined that the man will reject Christ (by default, in not choosing him).

I would declare to you that ultimately, man is responsible for his own decision and that therefore God's judgment of him is just and fair.

But if God chose certain men out for condemnation (by default), then His condemnation of them is not just and fair;

For God would have created them specifically in order to stoke the fires of hell.

I would ask you, what makes you so confident that you are of the elect?

Do you not realize that God may have chosen you to stoke the fires of hell if that theology is true?

How do you know that you will persevere to the end?

Because if you don't, according to most Calvinists that I have read, you were never saved in the first place.

So, how is that conducive to the understanding that anyone is saved in the present moment?

One cannot know that he was saved until he reaches the end of his life and finds that he persevered to the end.

Yet, 1 Thessalonians 1:5 and 1 John 5:13 and Romans 8:16 would tell us a different story.
 
But I realize that I am simply preaching to you and that the Holy Spirit is going to have to testify to you that what I am saying is true, if you are going to be able to receive it.

Because you decidedly have a different point of view.
 
But if God chose certain men out for condemnation (by default), then His condemnation of them is not just and fair;

For God would have created them specifically in order to stoke the fires of hell.
Why then create them with the ability to feel the pain of that unless he is some sort of cosmic sadist?
 
"But if God chose certain men out for condemnation (by default), then His condemnation of them is not just and fair;
For God would have created them specifically in order to stoke the fires of hell. "

Why then create them with the ability to feel the pain of that unless he is some sort of cosmic sadist?
  • Job 31:35-37 [ESV] "35 Oh, that I had one to hear me! (Here is my signature! Let the Almighty answer me!) Oh, that I had the indictment written by my adversary! 36 Surely I would carry it on my shoulder; I would bind it on me as a crown; 37 I would give him an account of all my steps; like a prince I would approach him."

How did calling God to answer to men work out for Job? ;)

  • Job 38:1-3 [ESV] 1 Then the LORD answered Job out of the whirlwind and said: 2 "Who is this that darkens counsel by words without knowledge? 3 Dress for action like a man; I will question you, and you make it known to me."

:)

Asked and answered by Paul:

Romans 9:19-26 [ESV]​
You will say to me then, "Why does he still find fault? For who can resist his will?"
But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, "Why have you made me like this?" Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for dishonorable use? What if God, desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy, which he has prepared beforehand for glory-- even us whom he has called, not from the Jews only but also from the Gentiles? As indeed he says in Hosea, "Those who were not my people I will call 'my people,' and her who was not beloved I will call 'beloved.'" "And in the very place where it was said to them, 'You are not my people,' there they will be called 'sons of the living God.'"
If Paul's answer (inspired by the Holy Spirit) isn't good enough, what could I possibly hope to contribute. :unsure:
 
It is my choice to believe that John 12:32 refers to all men without exception; just like it is your choice to believe that John 12:32 refers to all men without distinction.
I'm more open minded. I know from other verses that ALL can mean 'without distinction". ALL can at times mean "without exception". Rather than come to a conclusion based on verses with ALL, I use other verses where the meaning is clearer on a particular subject and use these explicit explanations to conclude one way or another what ALL means in less explicit verses.

Back to my question you didn't answer. You said that FREE WILL is God giving people the ability to decide to believe salvificly in an unhindered manner. I pointed out the empirical stats showing that, for example, the children of Muslim parents rarely turn to Christ compared to say children of Christian parents. The data shows Muslim children are being "hindered" and this invalidates your definition of FREE WILL. You going to explain what is wrong with my assertion??????

You said that FREE WILL is God giving people the ability to decide to believe salvificly in an unhindered manner. Since many people have died and never heard of Christ and since saving faith comes by hearing the gospel I assume you believe these people do not have Free Will because they were hindered from the saving knowledge of Christ. Do you concur?
Many "Free Willies" believe these people can be saved by another method. Maybe your one of them and if so tell us this alternate method. Thx
 
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I'm more open minded. I know from other verses that ALL can mean 'without distinction". ALL can at times mean "without exception". Rather than come to a conclusion based on verses with ALL, I use other verses where the meaning is clearer on a particular subject and use these explicit explanations to conclude one way or another what ALL means in less explicit verses.

Back to my question you didn't answer. You said that FREE WILL is God giving people the ability to decide to believe salvificly in an unhindered manner. I pointed out the empirical stats showing that, for example, the children of Muslim parents rarely turn to Christ compared to say children of Christian parents. The data shows Muslim children are being "hindered" and this invalidates your definition of FREE WILL. You going to explain what is wrong with my assertion??????

You said that FREE WILL is God giving people the ability to decide to believe salvificly in an unhindered manner. Since many people have died and never heard of Christ and since saving faith comes by hearing the gospel I assume you believe these people do not have Free Will because they were hindered from the saving knowledge of Christ. Do you concur?
Many "Free Willies" believe these people can be saved by another method. Maybe your one of them and if so tell us this alternate method. Thx
All people are unhindered at whatever juncture that they are being drawn to Christ.

Children of Christian parents may espouse the religion of their parents but that does not constitute being born again.
 
All people are unhindered at whatever juncture that they are being drawn to Christ.

Children of Christian parents may espouse the religion of their parents but that does not constitute being born again.
It was proven beyond a shadow of a doubt by @fastfredy0 that not all people are drawn to Christ. So why do you repeat that they are? And having done so state a non sequitur that does not address what he said.
 
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