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Christ "emptied Himself" (Philippians 2:7)

Dave

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Christ "emptied Himself" (Philippians 2:7)

My personal views, without the scripture.

Jesus incarnate, fully God and fully man at the same time. Jesus did not limit Himself in His humanity, but veiled His reincarnate Glory. In other words, taking on human nature was not a subtraction, but an addition to His being fully God. If He had ceased being any of His Godly attributes He would have ceased being God.

What say you. I think it was impossible for Him to sin. His sinlessness proved who He was.

What say you?
 
Christ "emptied Himself" (Philippians 2:7)

My personal views, without the scripture.

Jesus incarnate, fully God and fully man at the same time. Jesus did not limit Himself in His humanity, but veiled His reincarnate Glory. In other words, taking on human nature was not a subtraction, but an addition to His being fully God. If He had ceased being any of His Godly attributes He would have ceased being God.

What say you. I think it was impossible for Him to sin. His sinlessness proved who He was.

What say you?
I say that is close, very good, but not quite there.

The emptying of himself is qualified in the Philippians 2 text. One qualifier is he did not consider equality with God something to be grasped. The second is his taking on the form of a bondservant. That is what is explicitly stipulated in the text itself. There's no need for speculation on our part in either regard. Logically speaking, Jesus considering equality with God must have been a real possibility because it if wasn't actually possible for him to do so then this was a sin that would have disqualified him from being the perfect, blemish-free sacrifice that takes away sin. He'd have been like Satan, who delusionally believed he could be equal to - ne better than - God. Unless it was actually possible for equality to be grasped Jesus was a sinner before he took on the role of bondservant. So, we, therefore, know it was ontologically possible for Jesus to have equality with God. As to the matter of bond service, that particular bond service was so great that it covered the bond of all humanity. That's quite a feat. No human - especially no already sinful human - can accomplish that feat. What is the "bond"? The debt owed to God consequent to sin! In earthly, temporal terms, a bondservant is someone who has incurred a criminal or civil debt and is working off that debt through his labor..... serving someone who has paid off the debt beside the one owed the debt! How could someone buy a debt owed God from God? Logic, again, tells us this is impossible. How could any debtor pay off a debt owed God to a debt-buyer greater than God? Again, this is a logical impossibility.

Jesus, according to the epistolary, is the one who is one with God, by whom, through whom, and for whom creation was created. This informs us regarding his decision to lay aside any claim of equality and become a bondservant.

As to his not limiting his humanity, that is 100% correct. Jesus was made flesh in the form of sinless humanity, not sinful humanity. His humanity, or human-ness, is that of the pre-Genesis 3:6 human, the good human, the unashamed human, the sinless human, the guiltless human, the human with all the power and authority inherent in God's commands to be fruitful, multiply, subdue the earth and rule over it. The human still at liberty to eat from the tree of life in the garden - and Jesus is that tree of life. Every footstep he took on earth he took as the resurrection and the life apart from which no one could come to God. That is why he was able to command creatures and the elements of creation. It's not just because he is God; it's because he is truly, fully humans in possession of all the faculties that were lost to sin. His humanity is greater than anything any of us have ever experienced.

What do you mean by "reincarnate"? Jesus was not reincarnated. Jesus was incarnated (made flesh) and at no point in his life, death, or resurrection did he lose his flesh. Jesus was not resuscitated, either. He was resurrected. Lazareth was resuscitated. Jairus' daughter was resuscitated. Both those individuals went on to live the rest of their earthly life to die, stand before God and face judgment. They then received the recompense for what happened in their life: if they professed Jesus as Lord and Savior then they were resurrected to eternal life, and if not then they were resurrected to eternal destruction. There's no reincarnation (rebirth of a person's soul in a new or different body) in any of it.

Lastly, as to his "hiding" his glory, Jesus repeatedly displayed his divinity, his divine power, authority, and glory..... while still in the body of flesh prior to his return from the grave. In point of fact, every moment of creation, its entire history conspiring to prove the purposeful prophesied resurrection that would transform God's people is proof of Jesus' divine glory. You nor I could make that happen. We cannot even control a single minute of creation. Jesus stands sovereign over its entirety. When he tells Nathanael about his seeing Nate under the tree Jesus is revealing his divine glory. When he summons fish from the sea or out of a few buckets, he is revealing his divine glory. When he commands demons he is revealing his divine glory. All of those displays, however, occur within the context of no one being able to see God as He is, to stand before Him in all His glory and live. The light who came into the world was on the "dim" setting because..... he had decided equality with God was not something to be grasped when he took on the form of a bondservant. Philippians 2 attributes that decision to Jesus, not his Father. Jesus is the guy with that power.

And, therefore, it is correct o say his "being found in appearance as a man" was an addition to his divinity...... as long as it is not implied to mean God needed to be more than He already is, or that He can and did grow to a more superior form of godness. Eternally speaking, Jesus was/is/and always will be the resurrection and the life. There has never been a moment or place in creation when that was not the case. His physical entrance into the time and space in what we now call the first century simply manifested what already existed for those living at the time to see.
 
I think it was impossible for Him to sin.
That is correct. This position is called the doctrine of Impeccability.
His sinlessness proved who He was.
Well... that is true, but it is also a post-hoc argument.

His temptation, or rather his constant exposure to sin proved he was sinless, and not simply because he never fell prey to any exposure. Jesus is the thesis to the antithesis of sin. In every minute, every interaction, of Jesus living in this sinfully adulterated world, every word spoken between he and any other person, it is Jesus who in that very moment is the purity of divine existence, the purity of human existence as God originally mad humans. Any and all unrighteousness is sin (1 John 5:17). Jesus is the righteousness of God and he is not the righteousness of God after the fact; Jesus was/is/and always will be the righteousness of God. Anything not done in faith is sin (Romans 14:23). Jesus is God's faithful one who said nothing, did nothing apart from his Father's instruction (as a bondservant). All lawlessness is sin (1 Jn. 3:4), yet Jesus is the one about whom all the Law testified, the fulfiller of the Law - the Law that testified to God's glory. Jesus knows who he is, what he is, and what he has/will done/do. He is, therefore, not remotely inclined to give in to offers of bread, angel rescues, and rule of all kingdoms under Satan. Jesus has no desires by which he might be dragged away and enticed.
 
What do you mean by "reincarnate"? Jesus was not reincarnated.
I don't know why I typed that. I meant incarnate, not reincarnate. But there it is. No harm. If there is anyone who actually believes that Jesus was reincarnated, I guess now they have their answer. I'll reply more later. I agree with much of what you said but something you stated reminded me of another discussion that I recently had with someone else. Maybe you could offer your take.

Dave
 
............something you stated reminded me of another discussion that I recently had with someone else. Maybe you could offer your take.

Dave
I'd be happy to offer my take if I knew what it is I am being asked. What, specifically, was it I stated that served as a reminder, and of what are you reminded?
 
Christ "emptied Himself" (Philippians 2:7)

My personal views, without the scripture.

Jesus incarnate, fully God and fully man at the same time. Jesus did not limit Himself in His humanity, but veiled His reincarnate Glory. In other words, taking on human nature was not a subtraction, but an addition to His being fully God. If He had ceased being any of His Godly attributes He would have ceased being God.

What say you. I think it was impossible for Him to sin. His sinlessness proved who He was.

What say you?

Is that how you see that? I would think it more descriptive of fully submitting, allowing your body to be a mere vessel of God fit for his use, as opposed to chasing after ones own desires.

When Jesus prayed he sweat blood because he was so filled with God's Spirit that communing with God took that physical a toll, God's power that fully overwhelming for the human being.

That is emptied of all aspects of "self", all becomes for another.
 
When Jesus prayed he sweat blood because he was so filled with God's Spirit that communing with God took that physical a toll, God's power that fully overwhelming for the human being.
Never heard it put that way. How do you arrive at that from this verse?
Luke 22:44 And being in agony he prayed more earnestly; and his sweat became like great drops of blood falling down to the ground.
 
Christ "emptied Himself" (Philippians 2:7)

My personal views, without the scripture.

Jesus incarnate, fully God and fully man at the same time. Jesus did not limit Himself in His humanity, but veiled His reincarnate Glory. In other words, taking on human nature was not a subtraction, but an addition to His being fully God. If He had ceased being any of His Godly attributes He would have ceased being God.

What say you. I think it was impossible for Him to sin. His sinlessness proved who He was.

What say you?
That is correct. This position is called the doctrine of Impeccability.
But, "impossible for Him to sin", being an automatic fact?

The question seems asked from the human viewpoint that accepts probability as a valid principle.

If he is God he did not, does not, will not sin. Not only is it by definition self-contradictory, since sin is against God and God is not against himself, but when we put it that way, it suggests that it is simple automatic fact (in the minds of some) that Jesus Christ's temptation was not real.

True the fact that he did not sin is because he was God, but not because "it is automatic", nor because it is self-contradictory by definition of "God", for Christ to sin, since he was God. It is because he did not give in to temptation. Why he did not can be debated, but the notion that it was simply automatic needs to be defeated from the get-go.
 
But, "impossible for Him to sin", being an automatic fact?
Yes. I'd use the word "axiomatic," instead of "automatic".
The question seems asked from the human viewpoint that accepts probability as a valid principle.
Says who? And why would that matter? The question of impeccability is a simple binary equation and Jesus' emptying of himself is explicitly couched in the qualifiers of the surrounding text (which I have already addressed).
If he is God he did not, does not, will not sin.
And cannot sin.
Not only is it by definition self-contradictory, since sin is against God and God is not against himself, but when we put it that way, it suggests that it is simple automatic fact (in the minds of some) that Jesus Christ's temptation was not real.
Yes to the first part, not to that last "suggestion." What it suggests is that although Jesus did experience all the temptations known to man and suffered accordingly 1) his experience was different due to his ontology and 2) that difference added to the suffering beyond anything any of us would/could experience.

When a sinner sins he's experiencing something he's known all his life. That is true of the unregenerate and the regenerate. Jesus, however, never knew sin. He never knew sin in any way. He is sinless in both his divinity and his humanity. The temptation was real, but it was different. It was different because it was much uglier, disdainful, depraved for him than anything any human has ever experienced. He saw every element of it for what it is: the complete antithesis of everything divine and everything God originally made man to be.

You try having ALL the sins of EVERYONE who has ever lived poured on you and see how you handle it 🥵😭.
It is because he did not give in to temptation.
That's a post hoc argument.

It is true Jesus did not give in to sin. However, sin is not merely a thing we do. Jesus made it very clear thoughts can be sinful. The minute a person entertains sex outside of marriage s/he's sinned. It does not matter whether s/he acts on that thought. Scripture reports anything not done in faith is sin. Therefore, any element of doubt, any lack of faith on Jesus' part was sin. Paul writes about how we are "sown" corruptible. In other words, it is the potential to become corrupt that is part of the problem to be solved. Jesus cannot be corruptible and still be the perfect, blemish-free sacrifice because any corruptibility would be disqualifying. James wrote about temptation be predicated on (untoward) desires but James' definition is not the sole definition of sin and even if it were that definition would not apply to Jesus because Jesus has no ungodly, no sinful, no fleshly, no untoward desires of any kind. If he did, then he'd instantly be disqualified from being the perfect sacrifice.
Why he did not can be debated, but the notion that it was simply automatic needs to be defeated from the get-go.
I disagree. The doctrine of Christ's impeccability is axiomatic.
 
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I'd be happy to offer my take if I knew what it is I am being asked. What, specifically, was it I stated that served as a reminder, and of what are you reminded?
The objection to my views found on post #289 and #296 on page 15 of the link below.


Basically, in a nut shell, the Lamb slain from the foundations of the world is considered justice already paid in time because God is not bound by time. It's a position that seems use that truth to override any scripture that is time sensitive. Your statement at the end of post #2 in this thread reminded me of that discussion. I though t that you may have some insight. My mind hasn't been changed in the matter, it's just that I'm always looking for more insight so that I can answer in a better and more concise way in the future, since we live in a bumper sticker slogan world these days.

Dave
 
Never heard it put that way. How do you arrive at that from this verse?
Luke 22:44 And being in agony he prayed more earnestly; and his sweat became like great drops of blood falling down to the ground.

Seems logical don't you think?

We are filled with something that can kill, that the presence of makes mens hair turn white...

Praying is communion with that Holy Spirit before God's throne in worship. Technically speaking I believe. Jesus praying was a picture of trinitarian communion, God communed with himself before we were created.

Our humanity can only bear so much, our minds only hold so much and Jesus did take on our humanity.

Just seems terribly logical to me. When our need of God is the greatest, our desperation the deepest, God is there. I have always just seen the blood as evidence of the closeness of Christ to the Holy Spirit during that prayer.
 
Isn't blood in the sweat from sever stress?
 
Isn't blood in the sweat from sever stress?

Its from earnest prayer ..

Need is always when I feel closest to God, the desperate prayer is different from the daily prayers we pray.

As a man, Jesus was none of himself, but rather, all of man living for God. He was a vessel poured out.

Might be a poorly worded thought.
 
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Yes. I'd use the word "axiomatic," not "automatic".

Says who? And why would that matter? The question of impeccability is a simple binary equation and Jesus' emptying of himself is explicitly couched in the qualifiers of the surrounding text (which I have already addressed).

And cannot sin.

Yes to the first part, not to that last "suggestion." What it suggests is that although Jesus did experience all the temptations known to man and suffered accordingly 1) his experience was different due to his ontology and 2) that difference added to the suffering beyond anything any of us would/could experience.

When a sinner sins he's experiencing something he's known all his life. That is true of the unregenerate and the regenerate. Jesus, however, never knew sin. He never knew sin in any way. He is sinless in both his divinity and his humanity. The temptation was real, but it was different. It was different because it was much uglier, disdainful, depraved for him than anything any human has ever experienced. He saw every element of it for what it is: the complete antithesis of everything divine and everything God originally made man to be.

You try having ALL the sins of EVERYONE who has ever lived poured on you and see how you handle it 🥵😭.

That's a post hoc argument.

It is true Jesus did not give in to sin. However, sin is not merely a thing we do. Jesus made it very clear thoughts can be sinful. The minute a person entertains sex outside of marriage s/he's sinned. It does not matter whether s/he acts on that thought. Scripture reports anything not done in faith is sin. Therefore, any element of doubt, any lack of faith on Jesus' part was sin. Paul writes about how we are "sown" corruptible. In other words, it is the potential to become corrupt that is part of the problem to be solved. Jesus cannot be corruptible and still be the perfect, blemish-free sacrifice because any corruptibility would be disqualifying. James wrote about temptation be predicated on (untoward) desires but James' definition is not the sole definition of sin and even if it were that definition would not apply to Jesus because Jesus has no ungodly, no sinful, no fleshly, no untoward desires of any kind. If he did, then he'd instantly be disqualified from being the perfect sacrifice.

I disagree. The doctrine of Christ's impeccability is axiomatic.
Let me adjust my manner/development of presentation.

I am not trying to say that the doctrine of Christ's impeccability is not axiomatic, nor that it is in any way wrong. I am saying I want nobody to think that Christ's sinlessness was for him an easy thing, but that it was done by the same earthy, pedantic, grinding, difficult and daily means that we have available to us by which we must resist temptation (and I am not saying that his experience of temptation was in absolutely no way different from ours). That he managed it without sin not only is because he was God, but it also identifies him as God.

This is like when the mocker says that Christ's death on the cross was meaningless, since all God has to do is forgive sin, and that he only 'took a 3-day dirt nap'— denying the very reason for what he did and what it accomplished.

My complaint is only that the axiom bears explaining to those who will misunderstand how it went for Jesus Christ.
 
It's a position that seems use that truth to override any scripture that is time sensitive.
Well, I am again inclined to ask you to look at all of the unstated assumptions existing within your own views.

Technically there are no specifically "time sensitive" scriptures. That is because what God (fore)ordained in eternity never stands in opposition to what happened inside the timeline of creation. You know no two scriptures ever actually contradict one another... and whenever we find such a seeming contradiction it is invariably a function of our reading, our interpretation and not scripture itself. The same precepts apply to the dichotomy between the eternal and the temporal. We must all take care so as not to create false dichotomies.

I might ask, "When did Jesus empty himself of the claim of equality and take on the role of bondservant? Was it before creation was created or afterwards?" Did the emptying occur prior to or subsequent to his being foreknown as the perfect sacrificial lamb? We know the knowledge of him as the sacrificial "lamb" preceded creation because Peter states that explicitly when he says, "before the foundation of the world." In other words, ontologically speaking, Jesus was the sacrificial lamb long before he entered into this world, long before his incarnation. We also know that it is he who gives meaning to the Passover, not the other way around. Passover was instituted as a foreshadowing of the pending sacrificial lamb, the lamb that would come many, many centuries later. Peter states he was foreknown prior to the foundation of the world but revealed in those last days. In other words, his existence predates creation, but his revelation or revealing occurs "later."

Now, ultimately, all of that is in need of qualification because there is no before, during, and after in eternity. When I ask which comes first, the foreknowing or the emptying, that's a bit of a trick question because God is the eternal IS, not the eternal will-be (which would be contradictory to the meaning of God. We couldn't even say the foreknowing and the emptying co-occur for the exact same reason. They just are. It was from eternity, in eternity, in extra-temporal eternity that Christ emptied himself, not considering equality with God something to be grasped and taking on the form of a bond-servant.

Our heads will explode if we try to fathom this because in eternity there is no sin. There are no creatures that have become sinful. The sacrificial lamb stuff does exist and doesn't apply temporally speaking because temporal-ness has not then been created; it does not exist. None of it exists until God opens His mouth and say, "Let there be....." and when He does that all that He has in mind to speak into existence is a done deal. The beginning and the end are all already decided, along with everything in between related to the beginning and the end, the purpose of God when He created. Genesis tells us this was done in six days but a "day" is an irrelevant measure to God. For Him a day is like a thousand years and a thousand years is as a day. The "day" Jesus was born is a day that occurred within the six days of creation when all that God made was finished, and all six of those days and the thousands of days and thousands of years that followed are, for God, like a day. There is no "override" of scripture, especially if that override is construed to mean "cancel." It is right to have one's caution piqued when someone says one scripture "overrides" another and they mean "cancel." There's a problem in the exegesis when that occurs.
....since we live in a bumper sticker slogan world these days.
LOL! I get your meaning and tend to agree but the larger fact is that most Christians are sheep 🤨. Lots of sheep with a comparative few shepherds (Ephesians 4:11). Some were given to the Church as leaders. Most are not leaders. Furthermore, just because a person is made a shepherd/pastor or a teacher does not mean he or she is always and everywhere a shepherd or teacher. Most of us here in this forum in this thread have led sometime somewhere in the body of Christ but none of you are my shepherd and I am not the shepherd of any of you. Our role as sheep is enduring, whereas our role as apostle, evangelist, prophet, pastor, and or teacher may exist only for a time and only in a certain arena. When I go to worship service on Sunday morning I am a sheep, but I am, nonetheless, more educated, of higher intelligence, and of greater experience than the vast majority of those sitting in the pews around me - and that would include the pastor (although I will readily concede his superior education specific to theology and shepherding a flock of sheep). On the other hand, in my role as a counselor, there have been many, many times when I have pastored the pastors, shepherded the shepherds and done so in a relationship requiring them to trust and submit to my role as God's agent of change in their life. As soon as the counseling relationship is over, or anytime I step outside my office, I'm back to being a sheep ;).

So what? :unsure:

Well.... most of us here in the discussion forum are here because we have a thirst that most of our fellow sheep do not have. We like the discussing of matters theological. We're willing to debate, perhaps even argue, and while most of us do so with a dually existing willingness to both learn and teach, the said fact is there are some here whose only motive is to teach and never learn. They believe they are always correct, and everyone should read and hear, accept and agree, and never question or express any doubt about what has been said. Blessedly, those posters are generally few in any forum. The difficult aspect is they do not come with neon signs glued to the foreheads of their avatars announcing their kind. You are not a "bumper-sticker" believer. Most here are not. Imagine what a room packed with Mosesses, Davids, Nathans, Elijahs, Jeremiahs, Jonahs, Peters and Pauls (and no sheep) would be like.

So put the bit in your mouth and jump into the fray with zeal! Sit back, breath, and enjoy the ride while you do :cool:.



At any rate, I hope I've answered and addressed the op's inquiries to some benefit.
 
many times when I have pastored the pastors, shepherded the shepherds and done so in a relationship requiring them to trust and submit to my role as God's agent of change in their life. As soon as the counseling relationship is over, or anytime I step outside my office, I'm back to being a sheep

This does not make sense. ..

You never stop being a sheep it seems as our shepherd is Jesus therefore no matter where or when we are we are sheep in his flock.
 
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This does not make sense. ..

You never stop being a sheep. Our shepherd is Jesus therefore no matter where or when we are we are sheep in his flock.
I completely agree and nothing I posted should be construed to say otherwise. I said roles of leadership change, not our being sheep, and my sole purpose for saying so was to address the matter of "bumper sticker" theology. That's not an ecclesiological exposition on Ephesians 4.
As we stand in amongst the rest of the flock the Lord may choose one out for some task, some office such as pastor or counselor, but even with the mantle it's mantle on top of sheep, it's not replacing even one quality of what a sheep is. It's just a sheep with a mantle given to serve the Lord.

The sheep is nothing but a sheep the whole time, you're operating in the mantle only don't you suppose?
You're getting off topic in your own op. We were discussing Christ's emptying himself in Philippians 2 and the prospect of his ability to sin. Have I answered and addressed those two concerns to your satisfaction?
 
I completely agree and nothing I posted should be construed to say otherwise. I said roles of leadership change, not our being sheep.

You're getting off topic in your own op. We were discussing Christ's emptying himself in Philippians 2 and the prospect of his ability to sin. Have I answered and addressed those two concerns to your satisfaction?

Yes.

I'm not the OP creator though, slight correction there.
 
Isn't blood in the sweat from sever stress?
Its from earnest prayer ..

Need is always when I feel closest to God, the desperate prayer is different from the daily prayers we pray.

As a man, Jesus was none of himself, but rather, all of man living for God. He was a vessel poured out.

Might be a poorly worded thought.
From what I read.....Hematidrosis, also known as hematohidrosis, is a very rare condition where a person sweats blood, often triggered by extreme stress or fear. It occurs when tiny blood vessels near the sweat glands rupture, allowing blood to seep into the sweat.
 
From what I read.....Hematidrosis, also known as hematohidrosis, is a very rare condition where a person sweats blood, often triggered by extreme stress or fear. It occurs when tiny blood vessels near the sweat glands rupture, allowing blood to seep into the sweat.


Does this agree or disagree or neither? Just wondering...
 
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