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Why is Jesus called the Only Begottten Son?

Thank you for your reply, and your courtesy, which is much appreciated. Are you saying that Jesus Christ is no different essentially from any human being? I would say that the bible describes Christians as children of God by adoption, whereas Jesus Christ is the Son of God by His very nature.


ooh no, of course not

Jesus Christ is the word of God himself manifested in flesh and was conceived by the Spirit of God. By this Anointing Word whom is Christ Jesus was the heaven and earth created.

Jesus is the blood of God himself who lowered himself and took on human form to be made as a ransom and sacrifice to save from all sin.

thanks for being patient with me on that, and for not rebuking me instantly for blasphemy. I understand your question.
Jesus came directly emitted out of the Spirit of God and was conceived by the Spirit that is Holy ..


Gal 4:4 when the fullness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son …….. that we might receive the adoption of sons …….. and because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying - Father, Father.

we are Children of God and can be born again in the newness of the Spirit.
 
ooh no, of course not

Jesus Christ is the word of God himself manifested in flesh and was conceived by the Spirit of God. By this Anointing Word whom is Christ Jesus was the heaven and earth created.

Jesus is the blood of God himself who lowered himself and took on human form to be made as a ransom and sacrifice to save from all sin.

thanks for being patient with me on that, and for not rebuking me instantly for blasphemy. I understand your question.
Jesus came directly emitted out of the Spirit of God and was conceived by the Spirit that is Holy ..


Gal 4:4 when the fullness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son …….. that we might receive the adoption of sons …….. and because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying - Father, Father.

we are Children of God and can be born again in the newness of the Spirit.
Thanks. Sorry I misunderstood your earlier post.
 
One thing that can be confusing in that how sometimes we can confuse things by forgetting that Jesus did not send himself to earth,

the translation can seem to contradict this when we read -
Heb 2:17


Heb 2:17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren

It almost sounds here in “ Heb 2:17 “ that Jesus himself was in heaven deciding on how he would make himself appear on earth as if it was behoven to Jesus himself

As if Jesus himself found it fitting, - or Jesus himself found a benefit, - or Jesus himself found it necessary and personally determined to be made like unto his brethren

but

please remember – in John 8:42 – Jesus says three things here, about his identity.


i COME - “
εκ EX / OUT “ FROM THE GOD –

i COME NOT FOR FROM / OF - MYSELF –

i COME NEITHER MYSELF I - SENT –



εγω I AM - γαρ FOR - εκ OUT / FROM - του THE - θεου GOD - εξηλθον CAME OUT -

και AND - ηκω COME - ουδε NOT - γαρ FOR - απ FROM / OF - εμαυτου MYSELF - εληλυθα

I COME - αλλ NEITHER - εκεινος MYSELF - με I - απεστειλεν SENT.


:42

i COME - “ εκ EX / OUT “ FROM THE GOD -–

I COME NOT ALSO FROM / OF - MYSELF –

i COME NEITHER MYSELF I - SENT –



Jesus did not send himself, nor did Jesus come from or of himself

Here is the what the original manuscript message says in - Heb 2:17


Οθεν WHEREFORE - ωφειλεν HE SHOULD - κατα UPON - παντα ALL - τοις THIS - αδελφοις BROTHERS - ομοιωθηναι TO RESEMBLE - ινα THAT - ελεημων MERCIFULNESS - γενηται BE MADE - και AND - πιστος FAITHFUL - αρχιερευς HIGH PRIEST - τα THAT - προς UNTO - τον THE - θεον GOD - εις INTO - το THIS - ιλασκεσθαι RECONCILIATION - τας OF THIS - αμαρτιας OF SIN - του OF THE - λαου PEOPLE


WHEREFORE HE SHOULD UPON ALL THIS, BROTHERS TO RESEMBLE, THAT MERCIFULNESS BE MADE AND FAITHFUL PRIEST

THAT UNTO THE GOD, INTO THIS, RECONCILIATION OF THIS OF SIN OF THE PEOPLE

The Greek language is such a very simple language and the New Testament was written at a time before modern advancement and technology and began to appear.
The Consistency of the Koine Greek language had already been around for nearly 1,500 years when the New Testament was written, there were not a lot of changing and evolving words as we see in the Old English as Old English was beginning to be reshaped and was evolving into a modern world.
and there are not a lot of words in the Greek New Testament Manuscripts - as we see in the Old English Bible that are going through changes.....

Old English transitioned into Middle English around 1100 AD, and then evolved into Early Modern English by the 1500s and then not being to take shape is what is considered Modern English until after the late 17th century,

the Catholic Douay Rheims was written in 1582 and then its " copy cat " King James translation was written in 1611 - therefore, many, many words were in the process of being redefined and were changing and evolving into a modern world.

Although I am not a fan of the modern bible versions and find that the King James translation is more accurate but the - New American Standard Bible - translates the passage to say......................

New American Standard Bible
Heb 2:17 Therefore, in all things He had to be made like His brothers so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.

Do you think there seems to be a difference between these two translations ?
King James Translation

Heb 2:17 “ Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren


Does the “ King James Version “ seem to be saying that perhaps Jesus himself is personally making the PRE DECISION / and making a decision himself to be made a certain way, whereas the “ American Standard Bible “ does not attempt to make a play on words.

Does the King James Version seem to take advantage of the fact that language is being transitioned over into a modern era ?
can this confuse some readers who do not take time to look closely upon the history of how the Old English transitioned into Modern English ?
or is this just my personal view on the passage of " Heb 2:17 " from the KJV... when we say in modern English " it behoved him " ?

 
And why don't pastors teach on this topic? Am I weird for wanting information?
From my years of studies in Greek and Hebrew languages, it does not mean that son was the only one sired by their father.
We know this because Hebrews 11 verse 17 calls Isaac an "only begotten" and we certainly know that Isaac was not the only son sired by Abraham.
Scripture uses the term "only begotten son" to mean "unique, as in one of a kind".
 
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