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The Son of David was expected to cast out demons?

Tambora

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The Son of David, a title of the promised Messiah.

We have an instance where two faithful men expected that the Son of David could physically heal them of blindness:

Matthew 9 ESV​
(27) And as Jesus passed on from there, two blind men followed him, crying aloud, “Have mercy on us, Son of David.”​
(28) When he entered the house, the blind men came to him, and Jesus said to them, “Do you believe that I am able to do this?” They said to him, “Yes, Lord.”​
(29) Then he touched their eyes, saying, “According to your faith be it done to you.”​


We have an instance where what Jesus, the Son of David, could do was never seen done before in Israel:

Matthew 9 ESV​
(32) As they were going away, behold, a demon-oppressed man who was mute was brought to him.​
(33) And when the demon had been cast out, the mute man spoke. And the crowds marveled, saying, “Never was anything like this seen in Israel.”​


We have an instance of an expectation that the Son of David could cast out demons:

Matthew 12 ESV​
(22) Then a demon-oppressed man who was blind and mute was brought to him, and he healed him, so that the man spoke and saw.​
(23) And all the people were amazed, and said, “Can this be the Son of David?"​


The question:
Do we find any OT scriptures that would lead people to believe the Son of David (a title used for their prophesied Messiah) would have to be one with the ability to cast out demons?
What OT verses would lead them to expect this proof of the Son of David?
Do we have any prophetic OT scriptures of King David casting out a demon from a dumb and blind man or physically healing one of blindness?
Where did they get the notion that the Son of David must be one that would perform the miracle of casting out demons in a way that had never been seen before in Israel?


And let us not forget that this expected power of the Son of David to cast out demons was not limited to Jews.

Matthew 15 ESV​
(22) And behold, a Canaanite woman from that region came out and was crying, “Have mercy on me, O Lord, Son of David; my daughter is severely oppressed by a demon.”​
(23) But he did not answer her a word. And his disciples came and begged him, saying, “Send her away, for she is crying out after us.”​
(24) He answered, “I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.”​
(25) But she came and knelt before him, saying, “Lord, help me.”​
(26) And he answered, “It is not right to take the children's bread and throw it to the dogs.”​
(27) She said, “Yes, Lord, yet even the dogs eat the crumbs that fall from their masters' table.”​
(28) Then Jesus answered her, “O woman, great is your faith! Be it done for you as you desire.” And her daughter was healed instantly.​
 
The Son of David, a title of the promised Messiah.

We have an instance where two faithful men expected that the Son of David could physically heal them of blindness:

Matthew 9 ESV​
(27) And as Jesus passed on from there, two blind men followed him, crying aloud, “Have mercy on us, Son of David.”​
(28) When he entered the house, the blind men came to him, and Jesus said to them, “Do you believe that I am able to do this?” They said to him, “Yes, Lord.”​
(29) Then he touched their eyes, saying, “According to your faith be it done to you.”​


We have an instance where what Jesus, the Son of David, could do was never seen done before in Israel:

Matthew 9 ESV​
(32) As they were going away, behold, a demon-oppressed man who was mute was brought to him.​
(33) And when the demon had been cast out, the mute man spoke. And the crowds marveled, saying, “Never was anything like this seen in Israel.”​


We have an instance of an expectation that the Son of David could cast out demons:

Matthew 12 ESV​
(22) Then a demon-oppressed man who was blind and mute was brought to him, and he healed him, so that the man spoke and saw.​
(23) And all the people were amazed, and said, “Can this be the Son of David?"​


The question:
Do we find any OT scriptures that would lead people to believe the Son of David (a title used for their prophesied Messiah) would have to be one with the ability to cast out demons?
What OT verses would lead them to expect this proof of the Son of David?
Do we have any prophetic OT scriptures of King David casting out a demon from a dumb and blind man or physically healing one of blindness?
Where did they get the notion that the Son of David must be one that would perform the miracle of casting out demons in a way that had never been seen before in Israel?


And let us not forget that this expected power of the Son of David to cast out demons was not limited to Jews.

Matthew 15 ESV​
(22) And behold, a Canaanite woman from that region came out and was crying, “Have mercy on me, O Lord, Son of David; my daughter is severely oppressed by a demon.”​
(23) But he did not answer her a word. And his disciples came and begged him, saying, “Send her away, for she is crying out after us.”​
(24) He answered, “I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.”​
(25) But she came and knelt before him, saying, “Lord, help me.”​
(26) And he answered, “It is not right to take the children's bread and throw it to the dogs.”​
(27) She said, “Yes, Lord, yet even the dogs eat the crumbs that fall from their masters' table.”​
(28) Then Jesus answered her, “O woman, great is your faith! Be it done for you as you desire.” And her daughter was healed instantly.​
Good question. I am going to go have some more coffee and give that some thought and investigation.
 
The question:
Do we find any OT scriptures that would lead people to believe the Son of David (a title used for their prophesied Messiah) would have to be one with the ability to cast out demons?
What OT verses would lead them to expect this proof of the Son of David?
Do we have any prophetic OT scriptures of King David casting out a demon from a dumb and blind man or physically healing one of blindness?
Where did they get the notion that the Son of David must be one that would perform the miracle of casting out demons in a way that had never been seen before in Israel?
I don't know that they did expect that the Son of David must be one that would perform the miracle of casting out demons. What was astonishing was that this man, Jesus, was not like any seen in Israel before---not even David, who they knew from Scripture was the kingly line of Messiah. This man, even had authority over spirit beings. The connection was being made to Messiah, from descriptions given of Him in the OT. Perhaps most notably, Is 53 and Is 9:6.

I imagine the Canaanite woman had heard of or witnessed the miracles of Jesus, including casting out demons.
 
I don't know that they did expect that the Son of David must be one that would perform the miracle of casting out demons. What was astonishing was that this man, Jesus, was not like any seen in Israel before---not even David, who they knew from Scripture was the kingly line of Messiah. This man, even had authority over spirit beings. The connection was being made to Messiah, from descriptions given of Him in the OT. Perhaps most notably, Is 53 and Is 9:6.

I imagine the Canaanite woman had heard of or witnessed the miracles of Jesus, including casting out demons.
That's the thing, we really don't have any OT scripture prophesying that the Son of David would cast out demons.

The closest thing we have is when David played psalms on his harp for King Saul and an evil spirit that troubled King Saul left.,

But we must also recognize that the ancient Jews were aware of Jewish writings that did not end up in the bible most have today.
An example is scripture saying "it was written in the book of Jasher" (2 Sam 1:18 & Josh 10:13).
So we know that they were aware of other Jewish writings that further explained things that were only scantly mentioned in our bible today.

With that in mind, it is now known that the Dead Sea Scrolls had some additional Psalms (ones that were included in the book of Psalms from the Dead Sea Scrolls).
A couple of those Psalms do mention exorcising demons.

This is one of the reasons I take exception to the RCC making the hasty claim the Canon of Scripture was closed.
For at the time they made that decision they did not have access to many ancient Jewish writings that we have access to today.
 
But we must also recognize that the ancient Jews were aware of Jewish writings that did not end up in the bible most have today.
An example is scripture saying "it was written in the book of Jasher" (2 Sam 1:18 & Josh 10:13).
So we know that they were aware of other Jewish writings that further explained things that were only scantly mentioned in our bible today.
I agree that extra-biblical writings can give us great insight into, the culture and mindset of ancient Israel. Therefore they can be a great help in understanding much of what we read in the Scriptures. Nevertheless---I believe what we have as Protestant canon is sufficient unto salvation and contains all that we need to know. Anything outside that that is in agreement while not sanctioned for whatever reason, as the inspired word of God, can be said to be truthful. Anything that contradicts it, of course cannot be. So as per your example---yes it lets us know what they had access to and understood, or speculated about. Since it is not inspired, what is not made clear in Scripture concerning the hidden things of God, or explicitly stated by Him, I take with a grain of salt.

Somethings I don't need to know, since I can't know them for sure, is what I am saying.
 

The Son of David was expected to cast out demons?​


Son of David which is another name for Son of God was expected to perform miracles for witness as God's Messenger.

Jesus was given the power to perform miracles by His Father.
 
The question:
Do we find any OT scriptures that would lead people to believe the Son of David (a title used for their prophesied Messiah) would have to be one with the ability to cast out demons?
What OT verses would lead them to expect this proof of the Son of David?
Do we have any prophetic OT scriptures of King David casting out a demon from a dumb and blind man or physically healing one of blindness?
Where did they get the notion that the Son of David must be one that would perform the miracle of casting out demons in a way that had never been seen before in Israel?
Why would we expect everything said in the newer revelation to be included in the older revelation, a revelation the newer revelation explicitly tells us was veiled and hidden? In other words, from where whence comes does the assumption these questions are valid? If I used the exact same metric I might ask, "Where does the OT state the OT is the sole measure of the NT?" Can you see the problem with that question?

Or is there some other, yet to be stated, intent with this op? If so, would you please state your thesis now so readers can better understand the context of the op?

Thx
 
The question:
Do we find any OT scriptures that would lead people to believe the Son of David (a title used for their prophesied Messiah) would have to be one with the ability to cast out demons?
What OT verses would lead them to expect this proof of the Son of David?
Do we have any prophetic OT scriptures of King David casting out a demon from a dumb and blind man or physically healing one of blindness?
Where did they get the notion that the Son of David must be one that would perform the miracle of casting out demons in a way that had never been seen before in Israel?
You might start with 1) the fact one of the reasons Jesus came was to undo the works of the devil () and 2) much of what is said about demons in the OT is lost in translation from Hebrew to English. Take, for example, the following.

Isaiah 34:14
The desert creatures will meet with the wolves, The hairy goat also will cry to its kind; Yes, the night monster will settle there And will find herself a resting place.

In Hebrew that reads,

And shall meet the creatures of the desert with the jackyl and the satyr (sa'iyr literally means hairy) its companions shall bleat. Also there shall rest lilit (a female night demon in ancient pagan cosmology/mythology) and find for herself a place of rest.

All of that is lost in English. In Leviticus 16:7 the word "lassəirim" is translated alternatively as "devil," and "goat demon," or just plain "goat." There are numerous places in the OT English where the spiritual connotations are lost in translations. That being said, I do not know of a specific place where the OT explicitly states the Messiah will cast demons out of people, but that case can easily be made through inference.
 
Why would we expect everything said in the newer revelation to be included in the older revelation, a revelation the newer revelation explicitly tells us was veiled and hidden? In other words, from where whence comes does the assumption these questions are valid? If I used the exact same metric I might ask, "Where does the OT state the OT is the sole measure of the NT?" Can you see the problem with that question?

Or is there some other, yet to be stated, intent with this op? If so, would you please state your thesis now so readers can better understand the context of the op?

Thx
No hidden agenda.
Just wondering why people in the time of Jesus would think casting out demons was one of the things the Son of David could do.
 
No hidden agenda.
Just wondering why people in the time of Jesus would think casting out demons was one of the things the Son of David could do.
Do you find Post 8 provides such a basis?

Although I have some disagreement with Michale Heiser, you might give his book, "The Unseen Realm" and a read. He also has a book specifically on demons and another on the supernatural world. I personally, think he makes too much of the ancient Judaic and surrounding pagan cultures' (mythological) mindset. The problem is one of risking Judaization, but there is a lot of good information worth consideration when it comes to how and why the Messiah would be expected to command (cast out) demons.

Aside from the fact Jesus is stated to to have come to undo the works of the slanderer, I think the answer can be summarized in the simple fact the Messiah is King and High Priest, King of all other kings and Preist over all others, real or perceived - and that necessarily includes all creatures, even demons.

The Jews did not correctly grasp the magnitude of that fact, but their ignorance co-existed with any expectation people would be rid of the liliths, satyrs, and other demons within and without.
 
Do you find Post 8 provides such a basis?

Although I have some disagreement with Michale Heiser, you might give his book, "The Unseen Realm" and a read. He also has a book specifically on demons and another on the supernatural world. I personally, think he makes too much of the ancient Judaic and surrounding pagan cultures' (mythological) mindset. The problem is one of risking Judaization, but there is a lot of good information worth consideration when it comes to how and why the Messiah would be expected to command (cast out) demons.

Aside from the fact Jesus is stated to to have come to undo the works of the slanderer, I think the answer can be summarized in the simple fact the Messiah is King and High Priest, King of all other kings and Preist over all others, real or perceived - and that necessarily includes all creatures, even demons.

The Jews did not correctly grasp the magnitude of that fact, but their ignorance co-existed with any expectation people would be rid of the liliths, satyrs, and other demons within and without.
I agree that the ancient people in biblical times had a mythological mindset with such beliefs that both good and bad supernatural entities existed in a realm that was not always visible to them.
I would agree with Heiser and many other scholars that say to deny (or blow off as primitive ignorance) their cultural beliefs that permeated their world view at the time would be a mistake since scripture writers spoke of such things as being real to them.
One would need to be aware of their cultural beliefs to understand the context they write about.
To understand what any author writes about one would need to think of the world as they do.
So I do not blow it off as primitive ignorance and try to force the context into a modern scientific type of understanding.
The ancients believed in magic, potions, spells, divination, supernatural entities, supernatural realms above and below them, a flat earth, other gods, etc., so one must read their context with that in mind.
 
I agree that the ancient people in biblical times had a mythological mindset with such beliefs that both good and bad supernatural entities existed in a realm that was not always visible to them.
I would agree with Heiser and many other scholars that say to deny (or blow off as primitive ignorance) their cultural beliefs that permeated their world view at the time would be a mistake since scripture writers spoke of such things as being real to them.
One would need to be aware of their cultural beliefs to understand the context they write about.
To understand what any author writes about one would need to think of the world as they do.
So I do not blow it off as primitive ignorance and try to force the context into a modern scientific type of understanding.
The ancients believed in magic, potions, spells, divination, supernatural entities, supernatural realms above and below them, a flat earth, other gods, etc., so one must read their context with that in mind.
Was any of that known (or any of it given consideration) prior to posting the op?
 
Was any of that known (or any of it given consideration) prior to posting the op?
Sure.
Growing up I was a literature geek, and mythology was a favorite of mine.
I'm in my 70's now.
But the OP was sparked from knowing about literature such as The Lesser Key of Solomon, The Testament of Solomon, and similar stories in which Solomon (son of David) had power over demons.
 
The Son of David, a title of the promised Messiah.

We have an instance where two faithful men expected that the Son of David could physically heal them of blindness:

Matthew 9 ESV​
(27) And as Jesus passed on from there, two blind men followed him, crying aloud, “Have mercy on us, Son of David.”​
(28) When he entered the house, the blind men came to him, and Jesus said to them, “Do you believe that I am able to do this?” They said to him, “Yes, Lord.”​
(29) Then he touched their eyes, saying, “According to your faith be it done to you.”​


We have an instance where what Jesus, the Son of David, could do was never seen done before in Israel:

Matthew 9 ESV​
(32) As they were going away, behold, a demon-oppressed man who was mute was brought to him.​
(33) And when the demon had been cast out, the mute man spoke. And the crowds marveled, saying, “Never was anything like this seen in Israel.”​


We have an instance of an expectation that the Son of David could cast out demons:

Matthew 12 ESV​
(22) Then a demon-oppressed man who was blind and mute was brought to him, and he healed him, so that the man spoke and saw.​
(23) And all the people were amazed, and said, “Can this be the Son of David?"​


The question:
Do we find any OT scriptures that would lead people to believe the Son of David (a title used for their prophesied Messiah) would have to be one with the ability to cast out demons?
What OT verses would lead them to expect this proof of the Son of David?
Do we have any prophetic OT scriptures of King David casting out a demon from a dumb and blind man or physically healing one of blindness?
Where did they get the notion that the Son of David must be one that would perform the miracle of casting out demons in a way that had never been seen before in Israel?


And let us not forget that this expected power of the Son of David to cast out demons was not limited to Jews.

Matthew 15 ESV​
(22) And behold, a Canaanite woman from that region came out and was crying, “Have mercy on me, O Lord, Son of David; my daughter is severely oppressed by a demon.”​
(23) But he did not answer her a word. And his disciples came and begged him, saying, “Send her away, for she is crying out after us.”​
(24) He answered, “I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.”​
(25) But she came and knelt before him, saying, “Lord, help me.”​
(26) And he answered, “It is not right to take the children's bread and throw it to the dogs.”​
(27) She said, “Yes, Lord, yet even the dogs eat the crumbs that fall from their masters' table.”​
(28) Then Jesus answered her, “O woman, great is your faith! Be it done for you as you desire.” And her daughter was healed instantly.​
Pentecost (Acts 2:4) was the punctiliarl instant at which the disciples, who already were indwelled by the Holy Spirit (since John 20:22) were also ENDUED WITH POWER when the Holy Spirit came upon them. So You (If you're a Born again Christian) can cast out demons and heal the blind just as well as Jesus did, and with exactly the same power.
 
Was any of that known (or any of it given consideration) prior to posting the op?

Then the answer to the question asked in this op was known before it was asked. The pieces may not have been put together, but the answer was there in the knowledge you already possessed (not just in a deeper examination of the Hebrew I suggested).
But the OP was sparked from knowing about literature such as The Lesser Key of Solomon, The Testament of Solomon, and similar stories in which Solomon (son of David) had power over demons.
Why would you think an anonymously authored book on magic compiled in the 1600s would have anything authoritative to say about God's word? Isn't the fact the book did not provide an explanation for something easily known and understood informative regarding its legitimacy? I'm not being snarky. I would genuinely like to know why you would give that book any credence. My reasons for reading the book may be different than those of others. What's your thinking here?

Was there some other purpose bringing that into the forum besides wanting an answer to the question asked?
 
Pentecost (Acts 2:4) was the punctiliarl instant at which the disciples, who already were indwelled by the Holy Spirit (since John 20:22) were also ENDUED WITH POWER when the Holy Spirit came upon them. So You (If you're a Born again Christian) can cast out demons and heal the blind just as well as Jesus did, and with exactly the same power.
We aren't Jesus.We aren't God. We are not among the Apostles Jesus appointed. We do not have the authority that was given to the apostles in the NT era. That of laying the foundation of His church---that is the very truths on which it stands as unique from all other religions. The performance of things only God can do, validated their message. Just as they validated Christ as God and the Messiah.

There is no internal evidence of other believers performing these miracles.

Mark 16:20 And they went out and preached everywhere, while the Lord worked with them, and confirmed the word by the signs that followed.

The OT scriptures made clear these signs would follow the Messiah when He came.

2 Cor 12:12 The signs of a true apostle were performed among you with all perseverance, by signs and wonders and miracles.
 
No hidden agenda.
Just wondering why people in the time of Jesus would think casting out demons was one of the things the Son of David could do.
Here is a bit of further musings on that subject...

You're right that in Matt. 12:23 there was a clear expectation regarding the Son of David's power over the demonic: "And all the people were amazed, and said, Is not this the son of David?" So apparently, all the people of Israel were well acquainted with some familiar ancient Hebrew saying or prophecy that one with the title of "the Son of David" would be able to perform miracles such as casting out devils.

This was evidently a power that the Pharisees themselves were attempting to claim. In the same Matt. 12:22-30 context, the Pharisees accused Christ Jesus of casting out devils by the power of Beelzebub. Christ asked them, "And if I by Beelzebub cast out devils, by whom do your sons cast them out?" Exorcism among the Jews was something frequently attempted in those days, since demonic possession seems to have been as prevalent as the common cold back then. All seventy of those sent out by Christ returned from all those cities they went to, rejoicing that the devils were subject to them in Christ's name.

We know that in the days of the early church, those exorcist "vagabond Jews" - the seven sons of the chief priest Sceva - were also attempting to cast out devils in Christ's name, in imitation of Paul. All 7 sons of Sceva were attacked by the demon-possessed man for attempting to do this in Acts 19:13-17. So, this power to cast out devils in those days was a coveted ability that many were attempting to achieve, probably because it was part of the proof that they were the prophesied Son of David to come, working such miracles.

Here is one idea for where this traditional Jewish belief about the Son of David's miraculous control over the demonic might have arisen in the OT scriptures. You have to go to the LXX version for Psalms 72 - the last prophecies ever given by King David which concerned his own son Solomon and what he would accomplish during his reign. Speaking of Solomon the son of David, Psalms 72:4 says, "He shall judge the poor of the people in righteousness, and save the children of the needy; and shall bring low the false accuser."

Now, we know that Satan the Dragon was called "the accuser of the brethren" in Rev. 12:10. The Jews from ancient days knew of Satan making accusations against mankind before God, as was recorded about Job. So the Israelites would have been associating Satan with the designation of "the false accuser" for quite a while.

Solomon the son of David would "bring low the false accuser" by exercising some kind of power over Satan. This was done by Solomon's participation in the binding of Satan's deception of the nations. That was because the millennium years were launched with Solomon's temple foundation stone being laid down in 968 / 967 BC - a literal thousand years which lasted until AD 33 when the ascended Christ became the fulfillment of that symbolism as "the chief cornerstone" foundation stone of the spiritual temple not made with hands.

Also, during His earthly ministry, Christ as the final "Son of David" took further control over a bound Satan by "spoiling his goods" when He cast out devils along with His disciples. Satan had "FIRST" been bound long ago under Solomon the son of David at the beginning of the millennium. A thousand years down the line, Christ's power of casting out devils as the final "Son of David" had merely provided proof that Satan "the accuser's" devils had been under His control.

The eternal promises to David and to his seed were given in Psalms 89:3-4, 19-37. "I have made a covenant with my chosen, I have sworn unto David my servant, Thy seed will I establish for ever, and build up thy throne to all generations. Selah." "His seed shall endure forever, and his throne as the sun before me. It shall be established for ever as the moon, and as a faithful witness in heaven. Selah." Though the natural seed of David along with the tribes of Israel did eventually pass away, the divine / human Seed as Jesus Christ the Son of David was forever given the throne of His father David in fulfillment of this covenant promise, with no end to that kingdom, just as the angel told Mary in Luke 1:32-33.
 
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Here is a bit of further musings on that subject...

You're right that in Matt. 12:23 there was a clear expectation regarding the Son of David's power over the demonic: "And all the people were amazed, and said, Is not this the son of David?" So apparently, all the people of Israel were well acquainted with some familiar ancient Hebrew saying or prophecy that one with the title of "the Son of David" would be able to perform miracles such as casting out devils.
It does seem as if it was expected the Son of David would have that power by the verse you quoted and also of the women that seemed to expect that the Son of David had that power to heal her daughter of demon possession in Matthew 15:21-28.


This was evidently a power that the Pharisees themselves were attempting to claim. In the same Matt. 12:22-30 context, the Pharisees accused Christ Jesus of casting out devils by the power of Beelzebub. Christ asked them, "And if I by Beelzebub cast out devils, by whom do your sons cast them out?" Exorcism among the Jews was something frequently attempted in those days, since demonic possession seems to have been as prevalent as the common cold back then. All seventy of those sent out by Christ returned from all those cities they went to, rejoicing that the devils were subject to them in Christ's name.
Yeah.
Although I would not automatically think that they were only "claiming" to cast out demons but could actually do it.
But there does seem to be a particular type of possession that they could not do but could be done by the Son of David, being one who was deaf and mute.
Which also reminds me of the stories of Solomon needing the demon to speak their name for him to have power over them.


We know that in the days of the early church, those exorcist "vagabond Jews" - the seven sons of the chief priest Sceva - were also attempting to cast out devils in Christ's name, in imitation of Paul. All 7 sons of Sceva were attacked by the demon-possessed man for attempting to do this in Acts 19:13-17. So, this power to cast out devils in those days was a coveted ability that many were attempting to achieve, probably because it was part of the proof that they were the prophesied Son of David to come, working such miracles.

Here is one idea for where this traditional Jewish belief about the Son of David's miraculous control over the demonic might have arisen in the OT scriptures. You have to go to the LXX version for Psalms 72 - the last prophecies ever given by King David which concerned his own son Solomon and what he would accomplish during his reign. Speaking of Solomon the son of David, Psalms 72:4 says, "He shall judge the poor of the people in righteousness, and save the children of the needy; and shall bring low the false accuser."

Now, we know that Satan the Dragon was called "the accuser of the brethren" in Rev. 12:10. The Jews from ancient days knew of Satan making accusations against mankind before God, as was recorded about Job. So the Israelites would have been associating Satan with the designation of "the false accuser" for quite a while.

Solomon the son of David would "bring low the false accuser" by exercising some kind of power over Satan. This was done by Solomon's participation in the binding of Satan's deception of the nations. That was because the millennium years were launched with Solomon's temple foundation stone being laid down in 968 / 967 BC - a literal thousand years which lasted until AD 33 when the ascended Christ became the fulfillment of that symbolism as "the chief cornerstone" foundation stone of the spiritual temple not made with hands.

Also, during His earthly ministry, Christ as the final "Son of David" took further control over a bound Satan by "spoiling his goods" when He cast out devils along with His disciples. Satan had "FIRST" been bound long ago under Solomon the son of David at the beginning of the millennium. A thousand years down the line, Christ's power of casting out devils as the final "Son of David" had merely provided proof that Satan "the accuser's" devils had been under His control.

The eternal promises to David and to his seed were given in Psalms 89:3-4, 19-37. "I have made a covenant with my chosen, I have sworn unto David my servant, Thy seed will I establish for ever, and build up thy throne to all generations. Selah." "His seed shall endure forever, and his throne as the sun before me. It shall be established for ever as the moon, and as a faithful witness in heaven. Selah." Though the natural seed of David along with the tribes of Israel did eventually pass away, the divine / human Seed as Jesus Christ the Son of David was forever given the throne of His father David in fulfillment of this covenant promise, with no end to that kingdom, just as the angel told Mary in Luke 1:32-33.
The Lxx Psalms 72 is a nice addition to the theory.
Thanks.
 
Then the answer to the question asked in this op was known before it was asked.
No.
I still question it and seek input which is why the title of this thread ends with a question mark.


Why would you think an anonymously authored book on magic compiled in the 1600s would have anything authoritative to say about God's word? Isn't the fact the book did not provide an explanation for something easily known and understood informative regarding its legitimacy? I'm not being snarky. I would genuinely like to know why you would give that book any credence. My reasons for reading the book may be different than those of others. What's your thinking here?
We don't know for sure when it was written, and we don't know how long the stories were told orally through generations before they were actually written down.
I feel somewhat confident that the creation story and the flood story were orally told through generations before they were written.
And I don't particularly care if you don't think stories about Solomon that did not end up in scripture are noteworthy for consideration since we have scripture stating that things were written that did not end up in scripture.
And I certainly don't intend to interrogate you for not wanting to consider them because I don't care if you do or don't.
 
No.

I still question it and seek input which is why the title of this thread ends with a question mark.
Let me make sure I understand that correctly. You still question the premise, "Jews had an Old Testament basis for expecting the Messiah to cast out demons." Is that what you're saying?
We don't know for sure when it was written, and we don't know how long the stories were told orally through generations before they were actually written down.
We do not it was NOT written during the OT or the NT eras. We do know it is specifically a book on sorcery and we do know the Bible has unkind things to say about sorcery and those who practice it. At a bare minimum, sorcery is a work of flesh (Gal. 5) ad NOT a work of the Spirit.
I feel somewhat confident that the creation story and the flood story were orally told through generations before they were written.
Certainly. They were not put to writing until Moses, and Moses was inspired by God to put that history into writing. Are you suggesting there is a justifiable equivalence between the Pentateuch and the grimoire?
And I don't particularly care if you don't think stories about Solomon that did not end up in scripture are noteworthy for consideration since we have scripture stating that things were written that did not end up in scripture.
And I do not care that you do not care but I wonder why it is you think anyone caring is relevant.
And I certainly don't intend to interrogate you for not wanting to consider them because I don't care if you do or don't.
??????

This op asks a question. I answered it. The answer was affirmed, and it was reported the answer was already known.

Why would you think an anonymously authored book on magic compiled in the 1600s would have anything authoritative to say about God's word? Isn't the fact the book did not provide an explanation for something easily known and understood informative regarding its legitimacy? .................

Was there some other purpose bringing that into the forum besides wanting an answer to the question asked?
I don't particularly care if you don't think stories about Solomon that did not end up in scripture are noteworthy for consideration since we have scripture stating that things were written that did not end up in scripture.
And I certainly don't intend to interrogate you for not wanting to consider them because I don't care if you do or don't.
Ah, so I'm not going to get answers to those two questions?

I did not ask whether you cared. I asked why you think that book would be authoritative and whether or not there was some other purpose in broaching the inquiry of this op.
 
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