Its the end of the Messianic Age upon the earth, as that final rebellion shows to us that even while mankind is being ruled over in paradise, still wish to follow Satan in rebellion against its Creator
How do you reconcile the assertion there will be no more wars with the scriptural fact a war ensues immediately after the thousand years? You said the messianic age (a phrase not found anywhere in the Bible) would be no more wars. Maybe there is a typo in the original post and what you meant to said was there will be no more wars
in the messianic age. If that is the case, then please clarify that for everyone AND then explain the function and purpose of a temporary cessation of war. Everyone gets ten centuries off from war. So what? There have been times when there were no wars were rumored in various locales, at least one of them lasted more than a century. A lack of war and no rumors of war is not a particularly new thing for some locales. The chief remarkable aspect of Rev. 20's prospective lack of war would be the length of time.
But the hiatus still ends with war.
Jesus' reign still ends with rebellion.
Jesus' reign is temporary and it could be argued to be a failed reign given the fact it ends with war.
Is this what you hope for?
.....that final rebellion shows to us that even while mankind is being ruled over in paradise, still wish to follow Satan in rebellion against its Creator
So, the reign of Christ had absolutely no positive effect on the character of those over whom he ruled?
How do you reconcile the fact the promise to seat a descendant of Davids on the throne was said by God to be
everlasting, but by definition a thousand years is a fixed and finite period of time?