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Questions for Amillennialism

The time of the messianic Age though would require a world worship, as in all nations, Yahweh and His King the messiah, and that has yet to happen
Who is Jesus King over now?

Why does the fulfillment of Jesus as King require him to be present on earth ruling from Jerusalem in order to fulfill the promise of a descendant of David on a physical throne? Show me from Scripture that is exegeted within the consistency of all of Scripture. Something that doesn't fracture the historical account of redemption. The historical account of redemption is the story line that runs through the entire book.
 
Who is Jesus King over now?

Why does the fulfillment of Jesus as King require him to be present on earth ruling from Jerusalem in order to fulfill the promise of a descendant of David on a physical throne? Show me from Scripture that is exegeted within the consistency of all of Scripture. Something that doesn't fracture the historical account of redemption. The historical account of redemption is the story line that runs through the entire book.
Jesus is in His role of our High priest, and will transition to being the messianic King once his Kingdom is established over entire earth at Second Coming event
 
Jesus is in His role of our High priest, and will transition to being the messianic King once his Kingdom is established over entire earth at Second Coming event
So you have said. You have never shown that Scripture says that.
 
The time of the messianic Age though would require a world worship, as in all nations, Yahweh and His King the messiah, and that has yet to happen
I'll be happy to discuss that with you as soon as I read an answer explaining how it is Jesus' reign proves unsuccessful and ends with a rebellion involving "the nations in the four corners of the earth." You said the messianic age would be no more wars but Rev. 20:7-10 reports many nations assemble for battler and get consumed by fire falling down from heaven.

That sounds like a war to me.

How do you reconcile these things?
 
I'll be happy to discuss that with you as soon as I read an answer explaining how it is Jesus' reign proves unsuccessful and ends with a rebellion involving "the nations in the four corners of the earth." You said the messianic age would be no more wars but Rev. 20:7-10 reports many nations assemble for battler and get consumed by fire falling down from heaven.

That sounds like a war to me.

How do you reconcile these things?
Its the end of the Messianic Age upon the earth, as that final rebellion shows to us that even while mankind is being ruled over in paradise, still wish to follow Satan in rebellion against its Creator
 
Its the end of the Messianic Age upon the earth, as that final rebellion shows to us that even while mankind is being ruled over in paradise, still wish to follow Satan in rebellion against its Creator
How do you reconcile the assertion there will be no more wars with the scriptural fact a war ensues immediately after the thousand years? You said the messianic age (a phrase not found anywhere in the Bible) would be no more wars. Maybe there is a typo in the original post and what you meant to said was there will be no more wars in the messianic age. If that is the case, then please clarify that for everyone AND then explain the function and purpose of a temporary cessation of war. Everyone gets ten centuries off from war. So what? There have been times when there were no wars were rumored in various locales, at least one of them lasted more than a century. A lack of war and no rumors of war is not a particularly new thing for some locales. The chief remarkable aspect of Rev. 20's prospective lack of war would be the length of time.

But the hiatus still ends with war.

Jesus' reign still ends with rebellion.

Jesus' reign is temporary and it could be argued to be a failed reign given the fact it ends with war.

Is this what you hope for?
.....that final rebellion shows to us that even while mankind is being ruled over in paradise, still wish to follow Satan in rebellion against its Creator
So, the reign of Christ had absolutely no positive effect on the character of those over whom he ruled? 🤨

How do you reconcile the fact the promise to seat a descendant of Davids on the throne was said by God to be everlasting, but by definition a thousand years is a fixed and finite period of time?
 
How do you reconcile the assertion there will be no more wars with the scriptural fact a war ensues immediately after the thousand years? You said the messianic age (a phrase not found anywhere in the Bible) would be no more wars. Maybe there is a typo in the original post and what you meant to said was there will be no more wars in the messianic age. If that is the case, then please clarify that for everyone AND then explain the function and purpose of a temporary cessation of war. Everyone gets ten centuries off from war. So what? There have been times when there were no wars were rumored in various locales, at least one of them lasted more than a century. A lack of war and no rumors of war is not a particularly new thing for some locales. The chief remarkable aspect of Rev. 20's prospective lack of war would be the length of time.

But the hiatus still ends with war.

Jesus' reign still ends with rebellion.

Jesus' reign is temporary and it could be argued to be a failed reign given the fact it ends with war.

Is this what you hope for?

So, the reign of Christ had absolutely no positive effect on the character of those over whom he ruled? 🤨

How do you reconcile the fact the promise to seat a descendant of Davids on the throne was said by God to be everlasting, but by definition a thousand years is a fixed and finite period of time?
there is the Earthly Messianic Reign, but then eternal state ruling
 
After a literal 1000-year reign (the Millennium) following his return, Jesus hands over the perfected kingdom to God the Father, fulfilling 1 Corinthians 15:24
That is mishmash copy-and-paste eisegesis. The fact of scripture is that there is a rebellion, a war after the thousand years of Rev. 20. The millennial "kingdom" isn't perfected. It ceases to exist. 1 Corinthians 15:24 is NOT fulfilled. 1 Corinthians 15 is about the Lord handing over the kingdoms to the LORD, but that does not reconcile with your interpretation of Revelation 20. 1 Cor. 15 happens after all rule, authority, and power has been abolished. The Greek word there for abolished or annulled is "katargese," which means to make it cease to exist (not keep it around in a tortured stated in perpetuity). They are all gone. Such an interpretation self-evidently contradicts what is explicitly stated in Rev. 20.

  • a thousand-year period of time exists,
  • Jesus reigns in heaven with the beheaded believers during those thousand years,
  • after the thousand years Satan gathers armies to surround the saints,
  • Those armies are devoured by fire coming down from heaven,
  • there is a sentencing ceremony (the judgment has already been rendered - John 3:19) where all the bad guys, hell, and death get tossed into a fiery lake,
  • the old heaven and earth pass away and is replaced by a newer version (all of the old rules, authorities, and powers are gone),
  • Jesus comes to earth


That is what Rev. 20-21 states. No added interpretation needed, wanted, or existent.


Do you not see the contradictions within your own posts (one post contradicts another) and how the sequences in your posts do not reconcile with plainly read scripture?
 
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