If you say so. My bibles..multiple bibles in the beginning of the book of Revelation state the dat I mentioned. What does your bible say? Rev was written in the 90"s.
My KJV Bible (in the back section giving a brief description of each book) reads concerning Revelation, "There is a considerable difference of opinion as to the date of its composition. One tradition states it to have been written at the end of the reign of Domitian, about AD 96, while another connects it with the persecution of Nero, AD 64-8.
The earlier date is the more probable....the interpretation of the Rev. is easier if it belongs to the period just preceding the downfall of Jerusalem, and refers to events which lay in the immediate future."
But this quote is not the grounds for which composition year Revelation was written. INTERNAL evidence of Revelation itself trumps every other opinion or proposed tradition as to its date. And all those datable events and time-relevant language point to a date no earlier than late AD 59, and no later than early AD 60. A very narrow window of time.
Then why not say Jerusalem?
Rev 3:10 even speaks of more than Jerusalem...here is the biblical quote:
10Because you have kept my word about patient endurance, I will keep you from the hour of trial that is coming on the
whole world, to try those who
dwell on the earth
The sixth trumpet judgment DID say that it took place in Jerusalem - namely, "where our Lord was crucified" (Rev. 11:8). The sixth trumpet judgment finishes up in Revelation 11:14.
But you are right that the judgments encompassed in this Great Tribulation period fell on more than just the Jerusalem location. Jerusalem got the brunt of those disasters, but it was not that city alone that suffered. That is because those "Days of Vengeance" were going to shatter the power of the holy people (Dan. 12:7) - and Jews with their synagogues were scattered all over the known world at that time, as testified by Herod Agrippa to the Jews in Jerusalem in Wars 2.16.398. "Nay, indeed the danger concerns not those Jews that dwell here only, but those of them who dwell in other cities also; for
there is no people upon the habitable earth which have not some portion of you among them, whom your enemies will slay, in case you go to war, and on that account also; and so
every city which hath Jews in it will be filled with slaughter for the sake only of a few men, and they who slay them will be pardoned;" This came to pass, showing that Herod Agrippa had more sense of what was coming than the deceived Zealots did in AD 66.
You seem to be adding to your story...you said "They "remained" on earth in those glorified bodies for several decades"....do you have a biblical reference? Perhaps you do. I've never heard of one.
These Matthew 27:52-53 First-fruits resurrected saints were among the number Paul was speaking about in 1 Thess. 4:15 & 17 who were "alive" and who had "remained" until Christ's return. This description of the "alive" and "remaining" ones that would be "raptured" in 1 Thess. 4:15 & 17 was not speaking of those saints who had not died yet. It was speaking of those saints who had
already been
made alive by the resurrection process (like Dorcas who was presented "alive" to her companions).
Paul also wrote concerning the church in Romans 8:23 that "
we HAVE the First-fruits" of the Spirit's work among them at that time. These resurrected First-fruits were also waiting patiently for the other saints to likewise receive their "redemption of the body", when all together they would be "raptured" to heaven with Christ.
The bible mentions a rapture in 1 Thes 4:16ish....I'm missing your point.
Certainly it does. This 1 Thess. 4:16 "rapture" of the resurrected saints was going to take place as the resurrection and judgment Paul spoke to Felix about - the resurrection that was "
about to be" in that first-century generation (Acts 24:15 & 25).
You still haven't shown the people who were resurrected when Jesus died then came out of the grave when Jesus resurrected didn't die later on.
None of these Matthew 27:52-53 resurrected saints would ever die again (not even possible according to Hebrews 9:27 and Luke 20:36). These all waited on earth in those glorified, incorruptible forms until that AD 70 "rapture" of the resurrected saints back to heaven with the returning Christ.
Once again do you have a biblical reference that tell us these were the 144,000?
The 144,000 "redeemed from the earth" (Rev. 14:3 - resurrected bodily out of the grave) were specifically titled "the
FIRST-fruits unto God and the Lamb" (Rev. 14:4). In Revelation 14:1,
the 144,000 stood together with the risen Lamb on Mount Zion (the temple location in Old Jerusalem). The scriptures tell us that Christ Jesus was in Jerusalem on that first day of His resurrection, and we are told that the Matthew 27:52-53 saints all went into the city of Jerusalem that same day.
This
joint appearance of "Christ the First-fruits" and the other 144,000 First-fruits redeemed from the earth was symbolized long ago back in the OT. This symbol was the Passover ritual of
the sheaf handful of First-fruits barley, waved as an offering in the temple -
along with a single he-lamb without blemish (Leviticus 23:10-12). That OT offering of a handful of First-fruits barley grain and the single he-lamb was meant to foreshadow the "harvesting" of the Matthew 27:52-53 saints out of the ground, and on the same day that Christ was raised from the dead.
No unrighteous ones were included in that "FIRST resurrection" event - only "blessed and holy" ones who participated in it (Rev. 20:6).
Actually a better reply would have been that they represent some sort of evil supernatural being.
You're trying to hard to make scripture fit your broken theology.
The 20,000 Idumean horsemen ("two myriads of myriads") and their four generals were serving a God-ordained purpose in their attack on Jerusalem in AD 67 / 68. God had prepared them for a very specific hour, day, month, and year to accomplish His intentions. Their 20,000-numbered battle strength was meant to mimic the chariots of God, which number twenty thousand in Psalms 68:17.
Those 20,000 Idumean horsemen may have had evil intentions, but the wrath of men was only serving to fulfill God's purposes for that moment in time. That purpose was to eradicate the high priesthood and its moderate followers, (one of three factions - one third of men - struggling for supremacy in Jerusalem) who had been holding back the full fury of the Zealot rebellion against Rome. Those two former high priest leaders in Jerusalem (Ananas ben Annas and Joshua ben Gamaliel) were murdered and left unburied in the streets, with their Zealot enemies rejoicing at their deaths - just as the sixth trumpet judgment predicted for them.
Why do the books written after 70 AD not mention this?
Your presumption that any books of scripture were written after AD 70 is just that - a presumption. Internal evidences for the rest of the NT writings (as well as Revelation) also prove they were penned before AD 70. This is why there is no mention of Christ's AD 70 coming return - or the destruction of Jerusalem - as having already occurred.
Once again there is nothing in the bible that suggest this
I would not be posting about a THIRD coming and THIRD resurrection event if I did not see it being taught in scripture.
Don't you remember the various texts that describe God crushing Satan's head, slaying the Dragon that is in the Sea, and burning up the anointed cherubim to ashes so that "never shalt thou exist anymore"? God was going to destroy Satan utterly as well as every one of the evil hosts of angelic beings. The unclean spirits are now gone from this world, as well as Satan and his devils. Probably the only difference between you and me is
the timing of this destruction of Satan and his hordes of evil angels.
Once again there is nothing in the bible that suggest this......tell me, what "denomination" believes this? I know of none except for you.
"There is nothing new under the sun." Whether you have encountered anyone that presents these things before or not. I am not that original.