Does Jesus Christ have omnidimensional attribute?

[Binyawmene]

Some people say, yes, to the question.

Omnidimensional​

(Relating to, or existing in, all dimensions simultaneously).​

The best way to look at omnidimensional is to view God's immensity fills the whole earth, fills the heaven, fills the heavens, and fills even the highest heaven (1 Kings 8:27, Jeremiah 23:23-24). And he is above the heavens and still operating through the dimensions by his transcendence (Psalms 113:4, 148:13). And also (Isaiah 66:1 "Heaven is my throne, and the earth is my footstool") God immensity is transcending both heaven and earth simultaneously. At this point, each heaven would be considered to be a dimension, like space-time is viewed as a dimension. And if God is above the highest heaven, then he is outside of time and transcending through each dimension and time.

If you were viewing this from a Hypostatic Union doctrine perspective, then that would be according to the Divine Nature. However, you would have to suggest that Jesus Christ's human nature is also omnidimensional too (Hebrews 13:8 as the God and Man). For instance, upon Jesus' ascension, he was taken up into heaven visibly seen and the physical body pass through the heavens (John 16:28, Luke 24:50-51, Acts 1:9-11, Hebrews 4:14). With that being said you are more than welcome to agree or disagree. Add your thoughts and opinions. They are all welcomed.

 

[CrowCross]

Some people say, yes, to the question.

Omnidimensional​

(Relating to, or existing in, all dimensions simultaneously).​

The best way to look at omnidimensional is to view God's immensity fills the whole earth, fills the heaven, fills the heavens, and fills even the highest heaven (1 Kings 8:27, Jeremiah 23:23-24). And he is above the heavens and still operating through the dimensions by his transcendence (Psalms 113:4, 148:13). And also (Isaiah 66:1 "Heaven is my throne, and the earth is my footstool") God immensity is transcending both heaven and earth simultaneously. At this point, each heaven would be considered to be a dimension, like space-time is viewed as a dimension. And if God is above the highest heaven, then he is outside of time and transcending through each dimension and time.

If you were viewing this from a Hypostatic Union doctrine perspective, then that would be according to the Divine Nature. However, you would have to suggest that Jesus Christ's human nature is also omnidimensional too (Hebrews 13:8 as the God and Man). For instance, upon Jesus' ascension, he was taken up into heaven visibly seen and the physical body pass through the heavens (John 16:28, Luke 24:50-51, Acts 1:9-11, Hebrews 4:14). With that being said you are more than welcome to agree or disagree. Add your thoughts and opinions. They are all welcomed.

I would say when Jesus..the Word...became flesh...He didn't use His omniness on a daily basis.

 

[Rella]

Some people say, yes, to the question.

Omnidimensional​

(Relating to, or existing in, all dimensions simultaneously).​

The best way to look at omnidimensional is to view God's immensity fills the whole earth, fills the heaven, fills the heavens, and fills even the highest heaven (1 Kings 8:27, Jeremiah 23:23-24). And he is above the heavens and still operating through the dimensions by his transcendence (Psalms 113:4, 148:13). And also (Isaiah 66:1 "Heaven is my throne, and the earth is my footstool") God immensity is transcending both heaven and earth simultaneously. At this point, each heaven would be considered to be a dimension, like space-time is viewed as a dimension. And if God is above the highest heaven, then he is outside of time and transcending through each dimension and time.

If you were viewing this from a Hypostatic Union doctrine perspective, then that would be according to the Divine Nature. However, you would have to suggest that Jesus Christ's human nature is also omnidimensional too (Hebrews 13:8 as the God and Man). For instance, upon Jesus' ascension, he was taken up into heaven visibly seen and the physical body pass through the heavens (John 16:28, Luke 24:50-51, Acts 1:9-11, Hebrews 4:14). With that being said you are more than welcome to agree or disagree. Add your thoughts and opinions. They are all welcomed.

Great question.

I am not sure.

 

[Rella]

Since there is little reply to this question I went to Grok Ai. Grok Ai's answer is no and here is why.

No — Jesus Christ does not have an “omnidimensional” attribute. That term isn’t biblical and isn’t used in any historic Christian theology.
Here’s the clear, orthodox answer:

Attribute	Does Jesus have it?	Explanation
Omnipresence	Yes — in His divine nature	Matthew 28:20 “I am with you always”; Ephesians 1:23 “he fills all in all”
Omniscience	Yes — in His divine nature (with one voluntary limitation during the incarnation: Mark 13:32)	John 21:17 “Lord, you know everything”; Colossians 2:3 “in whom are hidden all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge”
Omnipotence	Yes — in His divine nature	Matthew 28:18 “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me”; Revelation 1:8 “the Almighty”
Omnidimensional	No	This is not a biblical or theological category. It appears in some New-Age, sci-fi, or speculative theologies, but never in Scripture or creeds.

Correct biblical way to say it:​

Jesus Christ is fully God (possessing all the attributes of deity — omnipresence, omniscience, omnipotence, eternity, immutability, etc.) and fully man (with a real human body, soul, and limitations He willingly accepted in the incarnation).
So He is omnipresent, omniscient, and omnipotent — but “omnidimensional” is not a real attribute of God in Scripture.
Short answer you can give anyone: “Jesus has every divine attribute the Bible teaches (omnipresence, omniscience, omnipotence, eternity), but ‘omnidimensional’ isn’t one of them — it’s not a biblical term.”

 

[Binyawmene]

I would say when Jesus..the Word...became flesh...He didn't use His omniness on a daily basis.

Functional Kenoticism is incompatible with the Hypostatic Union. Jesus' Divine Nature doesn't have an off and on button. Both natures are fully functioning simultaneously. if you really think about it, it's like saying that Christ is not God and Man at the same time. Maybe I'll be God tomorrow, but I'll be a man today. Or, do you think that when the Son according to the human nature is sleeping (Matthew 8:23), and that he turn off his omnipotence according to the Divine Nature by sustaining all thing, and all things hold together (Hebrews 1:3, Colossians 1:17) for the sake of his human nature being potent (weak) since it requires sleep?

 

[Binyawmene]

Jesus Christ is fully God (possessing all the attributes of deity — omnipresence, omniscience, omnipotence, eternity, immutability, etc.) and fully man (with a real human body, soul, and limitations He willingly accepted in the incarnation).
So He is omnipresent, omniscient, and omnipotent — but “omnidimensional” is not a real attribute of God in Scripture.
Short answer you can give anyone: “Jesus has every divine attribute the Bible teaches (omnipresence, omniscience, omnipotence, eternity), but ‘omnidimensional’ isn’t one of them — it’s not a biblical term.”

I wouldn't expect much from an AI nor did it provide any kind of information. Just simply saying, "no," and "it's not a biblical term" is proof by assertion at best. But it would be nice to simply hear you own views and thoughts. On the other hand, I've provided a Scriptural basis in the OP and you are welcome to challenge it. The term itself doesn't need to be specifically stated to be a Biblical concept. Like omnipresence is not stated in the Bible, but the concept is clearly denoted without question.

 

[CrowCross]

Functional Kenoticism is incompatible with the Hypostatic Union. Jesus' Divine Nature doesn't have an off and on button. Both natures are fully functioning simultaneously. if you really think about it, it's like saying that Christ is not God and Man at the same time. Maybe I'll be God tomorrow, but I'll be a man today. Or, do you think that when the Son according to the human nature is sleeping (Matthew 8:23), and that he turn off his omnipotence according to the Divine Nature by sustaining all thing, and all things hold together (Hebrews 1:3, Colossians 1:17) for the sake of his human nature being potent (weak) since it requires sleep?

It's not that Jesus turned it off or on...but rather Jesus used it all the time. That is sometimes Jesus healed via the Fathers power. Jesus often acted as a model for us.

 

[Binyawmene]

It's not that Jesus turned it off or on...but rather Jesus used it all the time. That is sometimes Jesus healed via the Fathers power. Jesus often acted as a model for us.

I am not exactly sure what you mean by sometimes. The Father doesn't have his own separate and private attributes. And that the Son doesn't "sometimes" operates in the Father's attributes. But, rather, the Father and the Son shares the same attributes derived from the Divine Nature. And there is not three omnipotences, but one omnipotence of God. Also, Inseparability of Persons is a Trinity framework: "Just as the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are inseparable, so they also work inseparably." (John 8:29, 5:19). The persons do not partition the Divine Nature, and they do not work as separate causes in the economy. The Father is never present anywhere in isolation and in separation from the Son.

 

[Rella]

I wouldn't expect much from an AI nor did it provide any kind of information. Just simply saying, "no," and "it's not a biblical term" is proof by assertion at best. But it would be nice to simply hear you own views and thoughts. On the other hand, I've provided a Scriptural basis in the OP and you are welcome to challenge it. The term itself doesn't need to be specifically stated to be a Biblical concept. Like omnipresence is not stated in the Bible, but the concept is clearly denoted without question.

On this I have no solid opinion.

If forced to choose I would say no, not as He walked on earth... from the standpoint of His emptying himself (Kenosis) .

But we are kept in the dark, biblically to what extent this was or exactly what was "emptied" likely from the standpoint we have no need to know.

I dont recall reading that He lost his divine attributes, (It has been a long while since looking into this.... and whatever the “emptying” entailed, Jesus remained fully God. Col 2:9 s ays that in Christ, all the fullness of God dwells in bodily form, emphasizing both His divine and human nature.

Now with that being said and the title of the OP if omnidimensional would be an attribute to deity.... I still say not to Jesus when he walked the earth because since we have only guess work and not scripture on His emptying himself, I would say if he had it... it would have been gone or impaired.

 

[Binyawmene]

On this I have no solid opinion.

That's fine.

If forced to choose I would say no, not as He walked on earth... from the standpoint of His emptying himself (Kenosis) .

But we are kept in the dark, biblically to what extent this was or exactly what was "emptied" likely from the standpoint we have no need to know.

I dont recall reading that He lost his divine attributes, (It has been a long while since looking into this.... and whatever the “emptying” entailed, Jesus remained fully God. Col 2:9 s ays that in Christ, all the fullness of God dwells in bodily form, emphasizing both His divine and human nature.

There are two main types of Kenoticism, 1). Ontological (emptying of attributes, aseity, of God, etc. to minus anything from God then he is no longer God) and 2. Functional (he still has his attributes, deity, etc. but limited in certain sense that he chooses to function or not to function in his attributes). Both positions from my opinion is twisted forms and should be distinguished from biblical understanding of the kenosis. The Son simply took-on the human nature through the act of humiliation. The Hypostatic Union does teach one out of many aspects in the act of humiliation by economically submitting himself to his own flesh and made it his own. He simply allows the human nature to go naturally through the course of his own biological laws of nature and to function through its own laws such has having a real physical birth, to grow bodily, to increase in wisdom, to be accident prone, and to have sufferings. He didn't prevent this weakness from happening. Like when his flesh is undergoing suffering. He doesn't prevent the suffering but allowed the human nature to go through the suffering itself while experiencing it in order to be our High Priest.

Now with that being said and the title of the OP if omnidimensional would be an attribute to deity.... I still say not to Jesus when he walked the earth because since we have only guess work and not scripture on His emptying himself, I would say if he had it... it would have been gone or impaired.

I would say that this functionality can only go one way, from the Divine Nature to be 'present at hand' with the locally restricted human nature, like according to the human nature "Jesus was walking beside the Sea of Galilee" (Matthew 4:18) and according to the Divine Nature "he is not far from any one of us" (Acts 17:27) and this functionality cannot go both ways since the human nature cannot be 'present at hand' with the omnidimensional Divine Nature. For instance, Jesus Christ as 'walking' is according to the human nature, which is, a localized physical bodily movement (Matthew 4:18, 14:25-26, Luke 4:30, 24:15, etc.) and not everywhere present like the Divine Nature that is 'filling the whole universe' (Jeremiah 23:23-24, Psalms 139:7-10 i.e. Ephesians 4:10, 1:22-23, Colossians 3:11, Acts 17:27).