Did Jesus Change The Law?

[jeremiah1five]

God is not a hebre man as King of kings.

Why would they offer sacrifices for the gentile's. For the gentiles what?

Are they a different kind of sinner? Or do all fall short of the faithful Creator "Let there be" and "it was God alone good

"Romans 7:5-7King James Version5 For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death.6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.

Simply Letter death. . Spirit life.

The law of faith God's labor of love (let there be). same as believing the unseen head Christ r

Remember just because he is invisible does not men he is not there .

Why follow after the letter of the law (death) What's your hope purgatory limbo ?

Is God a racist?

Yup.

 

[Josheb]

No, He did not change the Law.

Yes, he did. He changed it in two ways. The first is he wholly obeyed, and thereby fulfilled the laws of God, not just the Law of Moses, but all the laws of God. The second is, as our brother @Fred has pointed out,

Yes, He did.

Hebrews 7:12
For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

Very simple.

The New Testament explicitly states the Law was changed and changed out of necessity because there is a new priesthood. This is important because both were changed, the priesthood and the Law. The failure of this op to consider Hebrews 7 is a classic example of what I have repeatedly brought to your attention, an example of a chronic failure on your part personally, to consider what the NT states about the OT before posting. This kind of error has happened so many times here in CCAM that you should be acting to prevent me (and others) from using this criticism. Because we all now know you know we also all now know these errors are made either out of wanton disregard from whole scripture, or deliberately. If deliberate, then that implies a knowing, willful intent to deceive. And it is sad because the solution is very easily obtained: just llok to the NT to see what is states before posting..... and then include the NT as a necessary and integral part of whatever it is you have to post!!!

There's simply no way something as blunt as Hebrews 7:12 should have been ignored and the only good and true, faithful response is, "Oops! I made a mistake. Thank you for bringing that verse to my attention. The rsponse should definitely NOT be...

And what Law was changed?

or...

Fulfilling the Law does not mean an end of the Law for Jews that became born-again continued to obey the Law.

Both responses are abject failures in reason and character... especially since the answers to both those questions should already been known!

In addition to what the author of Hebrews wrote (and he wrote a lot more about the Law and Tanakh than just the one verse of Hebrews 7:12) the whole of what the NT states about the Law should be considered. When I have time, I'll survey those statements in a separate post because it will take up a lot of room. One pair of examples of what Law(s) and how the Law changes (outside of Hebrews) is what Paul and James wrote about the Law no longer serving as a means of obtaining righteousness and justification (which come first from Christ, about whom all the Law testifies) and through his work, not our own. Even more fundamentally (foundationally, presuppositionally), however, is the fact the New Testament reveals to ALL of humanity (including Jews who have been converted to Christ) works of the sinful flesh could NEVER provide salvation for sin and wrath. One of the purposes of the Law was to provide a means of knowing sin (Rom. 7:7). Sin reigned long before the Law was given (Rom. 5:14) but there was no means by which it might be held into account (Rom. 5:13). As a consequence, The Law came in so that the offense would increase (Rom. 5:20).....

.....and that means what this op is suggesting is that the offense of the Jewish converts to Christ persists remains.


Lastly, the covenant with God preceded the giving of the Law to Moses. Whatever the Law does or doesn't do, the covenant God made with Abraham and the preexisting Son supersede the Law. At best, the Law is a smaller component of the covenant relationship, a component that was 1) supposed to point to the Son of the covenant, 2) expose the complete, abject sinfulness of sin and its offense to God, and 3) bear wtness to God's grace found in Calvary and the resurrection.


Romans 5:20-21
The Law came in so that the transgression would increase; but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, so that, as sin reigned in death, even so grace would reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.


So, yes, the Law was changed. Therefore, upon examination of the whole of scripture the op does not just fail, but it actively indicates a particularly sinful view of the Law.

 

[Josheb]

Question #1: Did the high priest ever leave Israel and go to Gentiles and offer sacrifices for them?
Answer #1: NO.

Incorrect. The answer is, "Yes," but that affirmative answer is evidenced as an exception to the rule, not the rule. Jesus explicitly stated he was sent only to "the lost of Israel," and it is very common for Christians coming from the Judaized point of view to incorrectly think "Israel" is about bloodline when it is not. Ezekiel 2:3 stated the same point, but in the New Testament we read John opening his gospel with the very blunt statement, Jesus came to his own, but they rejected him (Jn. 1:11). The irony here is that the episode in which Jesus reports his coming to the lost is one in which he heals a Gentile! Other examples, like Cornelius, and Naaman in the OT, show Jesus did not exclude Gentiles. Logically speaking what is being asserted by this question is a false-cause fallacy. The unstated argument is, "If Jesus never left Israel and went to the Gentiles then his sacrifice was not for them," and that is openly contradictory to the whole of scripture.

Question #2: As High Priest did Jesus change the Law and offer sacrifice of Himself for Gentiles?
Answer #2: NO.

Again, the answer is, "Yes!"

Hebrews 10:1-18 (excerpted for the sake of space)
For since the law has but a shadow of the good things to come instead of the true form of these realities, it can never, by the same sacrifices that are continually offered every year, make perfect those who draw near. Otherwise, would they not have ceased to be offered, since the worshipers, having once been cleansed, would no longer have any consciousness of sins? ...........He does away with the first in order to establish the second. And by that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. And every priest stands daily at his service, offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. But when Christ had offered for all time a single sacrifice for sins, he sat down at the right hand of God, waiting from that time until his enemies should be made a footstool for his feet. For by a single offering he has perfected for all time those who are being sanctified. And the Holy Spirit also bears witness to us; for after saying, “This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, declares the Lord: I will put my laws on their hearts, and write them on their minds,” then he adds, “I will remember their sins and their lawless deeds no more.” Where there is forgiveness of these, there is no longer any offering for sin.

Titus 2:11
For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all people...

Romans 1:16-17
For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith; as it is written, "But the righteous man shall live by faith."

Romans 2:9-11
There will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Greek, but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. For there is no partiality with God.

One of the many heresies of your posts, @jeremiah1five, is that there is this persistent thread underlying all these ops where God is asserted as Someone who does show partiality between Jew and Gentile.

Very simple.

Yes, it is very simple. Scripture explicitly states the Law was changed out of necessity, Jesus did go to the Gentiles on a few occasions, his sacrifice has put an end to all sacrifices, and God does NOT show partiality between Jew and Gentile.




So, I am going to again ask a question I have asked many times before: What are your sources?

And.... I will again encourage and exhort an examination of whole scripture, specifically what the New Testament says about the Old Testament before post a Tanakh-only selective use of scripture to assert and support positions the New Testament clearly refute. How hard would it have been to recall (or find) Hebrews 7:12?


.

 

[Josheb]

And what Law was changed?

ALL the Laws pertaining to animal sacrifices, for one.

Hebrews 9:24-28
For Christ did not enter a holy place made with hands, a mere copy of the true one, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us; nor was it that He would offer Himself often, as the high priest enters the holy place year by year with blood that is not his own. Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself. And inasmuch as it is appointed for men to die once and after this comes judgment, so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him.

Hebrews 10:8-10 ESV
When he said above, “You have neither desired nor taken pleasure in sacrifices and offerings and burnt offerings and sin offerings” (these are offered according to the law), then he added, “Behold, I have come to do your will.” He does away with the first in order to establish the second. And by that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

No more sacrifices. That is a huge change in the Law. It's so huge that if you, as a self-proclaimed Jew, do not offer sacrifices in accordance to the Law then you're not an obedient Jew (and scripture has a lot to say about the disobedient) OR you implicitly acknowledge at least one set of changes to the Law. It cannot be had both ways.

 

[Josheb]

Fulfilling the Law does not mean an end of the Law for Jews that became born-again continued to obey the Law.

Yes, it does.

Even Saul after meeting Christ continued to obey the Law.

20 And when they heard it, they glorified the Lord, and said unto him, Thou seest, brother (Saul), how many thousands of Jews there are which believe; and they are all zealous of the law: Acts 21:20.

And Saul:

24 Them take, and purify thyself with them, and be at charges with them, that they may shave their heads: and all may know that those things, whereof they were informed concerning thee, are nothing; but that thou thyself also walkest orderly, and keepest the law. Acts 21:23–24.

Yes, but not as a means of obtaining righteousness or justification.

They were showing their love for Christ who said, if you love me obey my commandments. (Jn. 14:15.)

Jesus' commands and the Law of Moses are not identical. The commands of Jesus supersede and all-encompass the Law of Moses, AND if you love Jesus then you will obey commands in a manner much differently than the Jewish audience to whom he was speaking when he said those words because those Jews were hypocritically legalistic about the Law and Jesus repeatedly repudiated both their view and their practice of both (the Law and his commandments).

Matthew 23:3
Therefore, whatever they tell you to observe, that observe and do, but do not do according to their works; for they say, and do not do.

And then it all changed because of Calvary.

Hebrews 7:11-28 ESV
Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need would there have been for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one named after the order of Aaron? For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well. For the one of whom these things are spoken belonged to another tribe, from which no one has ever served at the altar. For it is evident that our Lord was descended from Judah, and in connection with that tribe Moses said nothing about priests. This becomes even more evident when another priest arises in the likeness of Melchizedek, who has become a priest, not on the basis of a legal requirement concerning bodily descent, but by the power of an indestructible life. For it is witnessed of him, “You are a priest forever, after the order of Melchizedek.” For on the one hand, a former commandment is set aside because of its weakness and uselessness (for the law made nothing perfect); but on the other hand, a better hope is introduced, through which we draw near to God. And it was not without an oath. For those who formerly became priests were made such without an oath, but this one was made a priest with an oath by the one who said to him: “The Lord has sworn and will not change his mind, ‘You are a priest forever.’” This makes Jesus the guarantor of a better covenant. The former priests were many in number, because they were prevented by death from continuing in office, but he holds his priesthood permanently, because he continues forever. Consequently, he is able to save to the uttermost those who draw near to God through him, since he always lives to make intercession for them. For it was indeed fitting that we should have such a high priest, holy, innocent, unstained, separated from sinners, and exalted above the heavens. He has no need, like those high priests, to offer sacrifices daily, first for his own sins and then for those of the people, since he did this once for all when he offered up himself. For the law appoints men in their weakness as high priests, but the word of the oath, which came later than the law, appoints a Son who has been made perfect forever.

Should have read the New Testament (in its entirety).

 

[Josheb]

And what Law was changed?

Aside from the aforementioned Laws about the sacrifices, so too have the Laws identifying the priesthood changed. In the Mosaic code only males from the tribe of Levi could serve as priests. In Christ the Lamb of Judah is now High Priest, and High priest of a different, much higher order. Where the Levitical priesthood was a (fore)shadow and the true priesthood God intended from the beginning, Christ and his body serve God as royal priests regardless of tribe (or geo-political nation-state status). Just prior to giving the Law God prophetically announced to His people that He would make them a "kingdom of priests and a holy nation." He then gave the Law - the Lw that showed them their offense - in which God stipulated the Levitical order. Did contradict Himself? No! In the New Testament we find the Exodus 19 promise fulfilled in the body of Christ.

1 Peter 2:4-10
As you come to him, a living stone rejected by men but in the sight of God chosen and precious, you yourselves like living stones are being built up as a spiritual house, to be a holy priesthood, to offer spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ. For it stands in Scripture: “Behold, I am laying in Zion a stone, a cornerstone chosen and precious, and whoever believes in him will not be put to shame.” So the honor is for you who believe, but for those who do not believe, “The stone that the builders rejected has become the cornerstone,” and “A stone of stumbling, and a rock of offense.” But you are a chosen race, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, a people for his own possession, that you may proclaim the excellencies of him who called you out of darkness into his marvelous light. Once you were not a people, but now you are God’s people; once you had not received mercy, but now you have received mercy.

People who were once NOT God's people have become God's people..... and members of the promise holy nations in which they would serve as royal priests (like Melchizedek, who was both king and priest).

Another huge change in the Law...... or, more accurately, a fulfillment of what the Law had always pointed to prophetically.

 

[Josheb]

The Law is spiritual. Apply it accordingly.

Practice what is preached and start by posting the whole of that passage, not just half a verse selectively removed from its narrative.

Romans 7:1-8:8
Or do you not know, brethren (for I am speaking to those who know the law), that the law has jurisdiction over a person as long as he lives? For the married woman is bound by law to her husband while he is living; but if her husband dies, she is released from the law concerning the husband. So then, if while her husband is living, she is joined to another man, she shall be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from the law, so that she is not an adulteress though she is joined to another man. Therefore, my brethren, you also were made to die to the Law through the body of Christ, so that you might be joined to another, to Him who was raised from the dead, in order that we might bear fruit for God. For while we were in the flesh, the sinful passions, which were aroused by the Law, were at work in the members of our body to bear fruit for death. But now we have been released from the Law, having died to that by which we were bound, so that we serve in newness of the Spirit and not in oldness of the letter. What shall we say then? Is the Law sin? May it never be! On the contrary, I would not have come to know sin except through the Law; for I would not have known about coveting if the Law had not said, "You shall not covet," But sin, taking opportunity through the commandment, produced in me coveting of every kind; for apart from the Law sin is dead. I was once alive apart from the Law; but when the commandment came, sin became alive and I died; and this commandment, which was to result in life, proved to result in death for me; for sin, taking an opportunity through the commandment, deceived me and through it killed me. So then, the Law is holy, and the commandment is holy and righteous and good. Therefore, did that which is good become a cause of death for me? May it never be! Rather it was sin, in order that it might be shown to be sin by effecting my death through that which is good, so that through the commandment sin would become utterly sinful. For we know that the Law is spiritual, but I am of flesh, sold into bondage to sin. For what I am doing, I do not understand; for I am not practicing what I would like to do, but I am doing the very thing I hate. But if I do the very thing I do not want to do, I agree with the Law, confessing that the Law is good. So now, no longer am I the one doing it, but sin which dwells in me. For I know that nothing good dwells in me, that is, in my flesh; for the willing is present in me, but the doing of the good is not. For the good that I want, I do not do, but I practice the very evil that I do not want. But if I am doing the very thing I do not want, I am no longer the one doing it, but sin which dwells in me. I find then the principle that evil is present in me, the one who wants to do good. For I joyfully concur with the law of God in the inner man, but I see a different law in the members of my body, waging war against the law of my mind and making me a prisoner of the law of sin which is in my members. Wretched man that I am! Who will set me free from the body of this death? Thanks be to God through Jesus Christ our Lord! So then, on the one hand I myself with my mind am serving the law of God, but on the other, with my flesh the law of sin. Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus. For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and of death. For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh, so that the requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit. For those who are according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who are according to the Spirit, the things of the Spirit. For the mind set on the flesh is death, but the mind set on the Spirit is life and peace, because the mind set on the flesh is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is not even able to do so, and those who are in the flesh cannot please God.

The Law is spiritual... but a natural man does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised (1 Cor. 2:14). The entire point of the Romans 7 narrative is that, speaking to those who know the Law, the law is spiritual but those who knew the Law (Jews like the former Pharisee Paul) were sold into bondage to sin so egregiously that they did what they should not do and did not do what they should do. The Law of Moses exposed and listed the laws constituent to the greater law of sin and death (if you sin then you die) which was at work in every Jew (and every Gentile).

But....

Praise God! For the Law of the Spirit has set us free from the law of sin and death and there is NOW, therefore, no condemnation for those in Christ Jesus!

And in Christ, there is neither Jew nor Gentile; there is only Christ crucified, resurrected, and ascended.

Another huge change in the Law.

 

[Josheb]

Jesus Christ obeyed every precept and command in the Law of Moses.

Yes, he did. That is not a point in dispute.

Jesus Christ fulfilled the Law of Moses.

Yes, he did. That is not a point in dispute.

Jesus Christ "nailed the Law of Moses on His cross" which is the same as nailing it upon His Person, fastened securely and unmovable.

No, it is not the same. First, Jesus is not identical to the Law; he is much greater than the Law that prophetically testified about him. Second, the cross is a place of death. The Law was put to death. Jesus was resurrected. There's not a single verse in the entire New Testament stating the Law, having been nailed to the cross, was brought back for death, resuscitated, or resurrected forever.

The Law of Moses did not kill Him as it does the rest of us.

That was never the intent of the Law. Assuming the intent or purpose of the Law was to kill Jesus is bad theology.

It kills us because we are flesh, and the Law of Moses is spiritual.

The Law is also fleshly. The word "only" does not exist in Romans 7:14. Do not put words into scripture that God did not write, and don't assume an exclusivity or false dichotomy where none exists.

When a person becomes born-again, they become a spiritual being by God creating a new a human spirit in that person and the Holy Spirit of Promise now dwells in that person.

Yes, and that happens extra-lawfully. A change in the Law and its relationship to the Christian occurs. One of them is that the dividing wall between Jew and Gentile and between sinful humanity are torn down.

By fulfilling the Law of Moses Jesus Christ did not 'end', 'abolish', or make the Law of Moses 'obsolete.'

Jesus did state he had not come to abolish the Law (Mt. 5:17) but that does not mean that's not what happened. Jesus was simply saying that was not his purpose. He said nothing about that outcome. Jesus, as we all agree, obeyed and fulfilled the Law, and as a consequence after Calvary .....

Ephesians 2:13-16
But now in Christ Jesus you who formerly were far off have been brought near by the blood of Christ. For He Himself is our peace, who made both groups into one and broke down the barrier of the dividing wall, by abolishing in His flesh the enmity, which is the Law of commandments contained in ordinances, so that in Himself He might make the two into one new man, thus establishing peace, and might reconcile them both in one body to God through the cross, by it having put to death the enmity.

And according to the author of Hebrews...

Hebrews 8:13
When He said, "A new covenant," He has made the first obsolete. But whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to disappear.

Since the Law was a constituent element of that covenant, it too became obsolete. The only way to reconcile this is to understand the covenant was made with the pre-existent Jesus, God making promises to His Son that were fulfilled in the Son's obedience, death, and resurrection.

In "nailing the Law of Moses to His cross" thus nailing it to His Person who is the Lawgiver and the only One who in His Person could obey the Law of Moses, when He dwells in a person through His Spirit it is this Law of Moses God promised to put in the inward parts of the person and this forms the basis of our justification for in obeying every precept and command in the Law of Moses in His Person and through His Holy Spirit in us God sees us as having obeyed every precept and command in the Law of Moses and declares us, "Not Guilty!" of any violation of the Law of Moses. This is the effect our substitutionary sacrifice in the Person of Jesus Christ the Lamb of God accomplished for the person chosen and elected to salvation.
Jesus said, "not one jot or tittle of the Law of Moses shall pass away until ALL [things] is fulfilled, and to date, not all things have been fulfilled.

So, until all things are fulfilled the Law of Moses put in our inward parts leads and guides the person from within what once led and guided the children of Israel from without written on stone but now through His Holy Spirit written on [the] fleshly tables of our 'hearts' [lives.] When we sin the Holy Spirit convicts us from within of sin what the Law of Moses once did from without. This is the mystery of the ages. The mystery of "Christ in us."

All things were fulfilled.

John 19:30
Therefore, when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, “It is finished!” And He bowed His head and gave up His spirit.

The Law was fulfilled on Calvary.

Ephesians 1:7-12
In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of His grace which He lavished on us. In all wisdom and insight, He made known to us the mystery of His will, according to His kind intention which He purposed in him with a view to an administration suitable to the fullness of the times, that is, the summing up of all things in Christ, things in the heavens and things on the earth. In Him also we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will, to the end that we who were the first to hope in Christ would be to the praise of His glory.

1 Corinthians 15:25-27
For he must reign until He has put all his enemies under His feet. The last enemy that will be abolished is death. For He has put all things in subjection under his feet. But when He says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that He is excepted who put all things in subjection to Him.

Hebrews 2:7-9
You made him for a little while lower than the angels; you have crowned him with glory and honor, putting all things in subjection under his feet.” But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.

The Law has been fulfilled. It is finished and all things have been summed up in Christ, all things have been put in subjection to Jesus under his feet. Even though we do not yet see it from our limited point of view inside the sinful temporal world, it is nonetheless the fact of scripture. All things relevant to Matthew 5:18 have been fulfilled.

And, btw, Jesus tasted death for everyone, not solely for the Jews.