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Calvinism, Fullerism and Arminianism

I'm interested in starting a discussion on Fullerism. Almost since the moment I got Saved, I have wanted there to be a Soteriology between Calvinism and Arminianism; as I've always called myself the most liberal 5-Point Calvinist you will ever meet. On and off over the years I've looked into Fullerism, but I think I'm now ready to call my liberal Calvinism; Fullerism. Because some people say Fullerism is 4.5 or 4.75 Point Calvinism, it's between Arminianism and Calvinism; Fuller was the middle man. But because of Reformed Baptists like Tom Nettles and their affirmations of Fullerism, I can say I'm a 5-Point Fullerite...

Some people call themselves a Calminian. Perhaps Andrew Fuller is the OG Calminian 🤔

Why should I, or shouldn't I, start calling myself a Fullerite?
The era and theological contexts in which Fuller practiced is important. I also think it is important to note the biases of Huntington Press. Aside from the curious couching of "Primitive Baptists" and "Egyptian darkness of hyper-Calvinism" (very creative, but I threw up a little in my mouth reading that ;)), the opening of the article qualifies Fuller with, “He is claimed to have been the ‘sledge-hammer’ that beat Methodistical fervour into the cold Baptists and roused both Baptists and Protestants to ‘send the gospel into heathen lands.’”

Let's say that is correct. John Wesley lived during the 1700s, the 18th century. Fuller was born in the middle of that and lived well into the 1800s, which theologically and ecclesiologically (not ecclesiastically) was characterized by the restoration movement. HUGE changes, HUGE divides, and HUGE debates ensured during this period of time. Wesley started out as Anglican and was, therefore, schooled in the Anglican view of Reformed theology, but Wesley was also profoundly influenced by the Moravians and their emphasis on piety. Wesley struggled his entire life with his personal piety and is key in the theology of Pietism. In extreme form heresies like perfectionism come from that movement. That said, perfectionism is mentioned only for context. It's an outlier not wholly relevant to my comments here. What is relevant is the fact Wesley is key to something that is probably the single biggest change in modern Christian history: the move away from creedalism to experientialism. There are other factors involve, such as the limited access to personal Bibles, the lack of institutional oversight, the increased prevalence of tent meetings and revivals (real and fake), and other conditions of that era. This influence eclipsed that of Edwards, who died shortly after Fuller was born.

The move toward experientialism and the lack of oversight (especially in America) due to the westward expansion meant every preacher was authoritative when the fact is there was no way for any individual to know whether or not what they heard preached was biblically correct or not. Over the course of these two centuries, we moved from Rousseau and Locke to Hume to Hegel and in the mid-1800s there were secular influences like Darwin and Marx and by the end the century closed out with Nietzche and Freud. The church was still working with a book multiple millennia old. Christianity was still the prevailing worldview in the west but secular humanism was departing from the Christian humanism that had long been held within Christendom.

So what?

Well, during the time in which Fuller came to faith and began his profession the restoration movement was taking place and aside from the apocalypsism (sp?) running through that movement one of the chief viewpoints was the Church is corrupt. The Church is corrupt and in need of restoration. Hence the name of the movement. Aside from the fact every sect believed it was the true version of the Chruch, what this more generically meant was a wholesale questioning of orthodoxy. That included Protestant orthodoxy.

Forgive the length of this post because as fas as Fullerism goes this can be boiled down to a single statement.



Experientialism is very hard on the mind for Calvinist thinking.


The questions boil down to do I trust the Bible to measure my experience, or do I trust my experience and then measure what I read in the Bible that experience. That is why I asked the question I asked in Post #20. To what degree might Fuller have identified his personal mental and physiological experience as his own versus attributing it to the working of the Holy Spirit? He lived in the head waters of what has become the "normal" way of looking at conversion for a lot of modern Christendom. He straddled the move from creedalism to experientialism so, logically speaking, his views fit perfectly with his era, but his era is a theological aberration, one that ended up generating a HUGE explosion of denominational/sectarian and theological/doctrinal diversity. Entirely new sects, doctrines, and practices were the progeny and most Christians living today have little or no knowledge of the history. The sectarianism and doctrinal divides are taken as the norm and something that has always existed when that is not the case.


Here's an off-topic question to highlight the point: How many of you knew Messianic Judaism is a 1960s invention by a Baptist preacher trying to provide for the needs of Jewish converts in his local?
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Some people call themselves a Calminian. Perhaps Andrew Fuller is the OG Calminian 🤔

Why should I, or shouldn't I, start calling myself a Fullerite?
Hope my taking up so much space in the thread isn't a problem. I'm not familiar specifically with Fuller (surely not as thoroughly as you might be. These comments and inquiries seemed germane to the op, the included article, and my very brief Googling of Fuller just now. Personally, I suspect anyone not raised in a Reformed congregation who comes to Calvinism went through the phase of Armvinism and then Calminianism. Many die before coming to the end of the spectrum. Fuller may have been one of them :unsure:. I do not think Fuller was the OG. That debate had been going on for a few hundred years even in his day.
 
What specifically is it in Fullerism that enamors you? What, specifically, leads you to the conclusion you're not a whole 5Per?
Duty Faith. As I said above, it lead me to believe the First Commandment is to have the LORD Jesus Christ as your Savior; that the Gospel is a Commandment of God to All who have the Law written on their Stoney Hearts...

I'd say that if I'm a Fullerite, I'm a 5-Point Fullerite...
 
Duty Faith. As I said above, it lead me to believe the First Commandment is to have the LORD Jesus Christ as your Savior; that the Gospel is a Commandment of God to All who have the Law written on their Stoney Hearts...
Okay. Let's parse that out.

  1. Is having the laws of God written on one's heart as a function of God's design for man at creation identical to or synonymous with having God's laws written on one's heart at conversion?
  2. When God first created humanity the humans he made did not have "stoney hearts." Sin didn't exist and hadn't then occurred in order to turn the heart of flesh into a stone version. Yes?
  3. There are only three mentions of a heart of stone in the Bible and one of them (Job 41:24) is about the Leviathan, not humans. The only mentions of a human heart of stone are in Ezekiel (Eze. 11:19 and 36:26). There are several verses that speak of a "new" heart but do not specify it as stone, flesh, or something else. Both of the Ezekiel verses explicitly specify the alternative to the heart of stone is the heart of flesh. Both verses were written to people who were physically alive but dead in sin or transgression. Physically, therefore, they had a heart of flesh because that muscle, the blood pump is made of human flesh. It is certainly not made of stone. A stone heart does not pump blood. We, therefore, necessarily understand this promise of a heart of flesh is indicative of something other than the physical blood pump residing in their chest. Yes?
  4. Zechariah 7:12 explains how the heart was made hard and describes the hardening as "hard as flint," which is a stone. The Zechariah text was written specifically to and specifically about a covenant people who had been living for centuries in a monergistically God-initiated covenant. It was not written about pagan Gentiles of the day and certainly not about atheists (those denying the existence of God). Yes?
  5. There is no New Testament verse specifically or explicitly mentioning a "heart of flesh"? Yes?


Oops! My regrets. I gotta ago but I am not finished with these questions. My intention was to separate what is stated in scripture from what is or can be inferred. I am unaware of any verse in the Bible explicitly stating all humans' hearts are "stoney." I do not reject the premise but think its inferential nature should be acknowledged. Most of those questions are asked in a manner where a simple affirmation of the "Yes?" is all that is necessary. Only the first question requires a more substantive answer.
I'd say that if I'm a Fullerite, I'm a 5-Point Fullerite...
What is the exact difference between a 5-Point Fullerite and a 5-Point Calvinist?
 
What is the exact difference between a 5-Point Fullerite and a 5-Point Calvinist?
I suppose I'll have to learn Fullerism better, but I still hold to the Doctrines of Grace. So my explanation of why I believe the things I do, the WAY I believe them; may differ from the reasons Fuller believed what he did, and could differ from his explanations of why he came to his conclusions. Though I believe the Doctrines of Grace, I DO explain them differently than Calvinism does...
 
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Okay. Let's parse that out.

  1. Is having the laws of God written on one's heart as a function of God's design for man at creation identical to or synonymous with having God's laws written on one's heart at conversion?
I would differ regarding your P1; I think Adam wrote the Law of God on the heart of Man, when he ate Fruit from the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. His eyes, and thus our eyes, were opened...
 
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I've read that, and like it; though it's hard to read. I'd love to read it again, as I'm interested again. I may order the book...

It is why I started saying that in our modern Day, the First Commandment is, 'Thou shalt have Jesus Christ as your God'. Those who Do the Law without having the Law, show the Law to Have Jesus Christ as their God is written on their heart; thus it is their Duty to Believe the Gospel...

Just as it was Israel's Duty to mix Faith with the Command to have YHWH...
So I found the paper finally. However, I'm reading through it right now, and I may quote portions of it. I enjoyed the section on Jonathan Edwards, and now I'm moving to Andrew Fuller's views. Maybe in a day or two I'll have something of substance to share.
 
To what degree do you think Fuller was experiencing as his own sensations that were in fact the working of the Holy Spirit within him? To what extent do you think many (if not all) of us make the same mistake?

Fullerism is the philosophies of men after the rudiments of this world. Not after Christ not seen

Colossians 2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.

I would think we are not saved experiencing one's own sensations . Experience is not the valitor of faith (the unseen things of God) -

Colossian 2:18 Some people enjoy acting as if they are humble and love to worship angels. They always talk about the visions they have seen. Don’t listen to them when they say you are wrong because you don’t do these things. It is so foolish for them to feel such pride, because it is all based on their own human ideas.
 
I would differ regarding your P1; I think Adam wrote the Law of God on the heart of Man, when he ate Fruit from the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. His eyes, and thus our eyes, were opened...
I would think God wrote his law on the heart of men purposely hiding the understanding using parables to reveal the mysteries of faith. . . which without he spoke not

Ecclesiastes 3:11 He hath made every thing beautiful in his time: also he hath set the world in their heart, so that no man can find out the work that God maketh from the beginning to the end.

God knew beforehand that whenever a prophet died men would go thier own way as oral traditions of dying mankind . Its where the idea of apostolic succession dying makind in the place of God , the abomination of desolation comes in destroying sola scriptura .

Deuteronomy 31 24 And it came to pass, when Moses had made an end of writing the words of this law in a book, until they were finished,
That Moses commanded the Levites, which bare the ark of the covenant of the Lord, saying, Take this book of the law, and put it in the side of the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God, that it may be there for a witness against thee.For I know thy rebellion, and thy stiff neck: behold, while I am yet alive with you this day, ye have been rebellious against the Lord; and how much more after my death?

The golden measure (gold the only rudiment of this world that God declared as good during creation( represents the measure of faith (Christ's in us )

Genesis 2:11 The name of the first is Pison: that is it which compasseth the whole land of Havilah, where there is gold;
And the gold of that land is good: there is bdellium and the onyx stone.

The Bible was placed on the outside of the Ark it revealed the will of God hidden from natural unconverted mankind .Called the hidden manna in Rev 2:17

The unseen measure

Revelation 21:15And he that talked with me had a golden reed to measure the city, and the gates thereof, and the wall thereof.

The same purpose of ceremonial laws as shadows .Signs to the unbelieving world drawing them to it as it is writen (sola scriptura) hidden manna.
 
I would differ regarding your P1; I think Adam wrote the Law of God on the heart of Man, when he ate Fruit from the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. His eyes, and thus our eyes, were opened...
Let me make sure I understand this correctly.

When Adam disobeyed God the capital "L" Law of God was written on the human heart. Prior to Adam disobeying God the Law of God was not written on the human heart. Adam's eyes being opened, as stated in Genesis 3:7, and thereby all other human eyes would also be opened thereafter. The writing of the Law of God is caused by disobedience, not obedience. God did not write His Law on the human heart; Adam did that.

Is that what I am supposed to understand Post #26 to say?

If so, then...

Psalm 40:8
I delight to do Your will, my God; Your Law is within my heart.

We should understand the psalmist (David) is referring to something Adam caused and accomplished with his act of disobedience and the psalmist is taking delight in that, and that through this act of disobedience by which Adam wrote God's Law on the human heart we thereby know God's will. Do I have that correct?

Romans 2:14-16
For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus.

We should understand Paul's comment to mean "the work of the Law written in their hearts" is something accomplished by Adam and Adam's act of disobedience and not a writing done by God. Do I have that correct?
...........I think...
Is this thinking a development of your own doing or is this something you have garnered from reading another source or sources? If so, would you mind letting me know that source or sources (one or two will suffice)?
 
Okay. Let's parse that out.

  1. Is having the laws of God written on one's heart as a function of God's design for man at creation identical to or synonymous with having God's laws written on one's heart at conversion?
I would differ regarding your P1; I think Adam wrote the Law of God on the heart of Man, when he ate Fruit from the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. His eyes, and thus our eyes, were opened...
Let's clarify something. "P1" isn't a "point" or a "premise;" it is a question. Since I did not assert any specific position in answer to that question we do not actually "differ." Not yet, at any rate. Yes, the question does specify the writer as God and specify God's design as the relevant "function," and specify the timing or occurrence at creation, but nowhere is any of that asserted or treated as a given. The question simply asks if God's design the function and whether or not it was God who wrote the law and whether or not it happened at creation. The question asks if what was assumed is correct.

The answer posted in Post #26 is, in essence, "No, Adam wrote the Law of God on the human heart, not God. Therefore, that writing is not a function of God's design at creation but a function of Adam's disobedience that came long after God had finished creating creation."

Yes?
 
Fullerism is the philosophies of men after the rudiments of this world. Not after Christ not seen

Colossians 2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.

I would think we are not saved experiencing one's own sensations . Experience is not the valitor of faith (the unseen things of God) -

Colossian 2:18 Some people enjoy acting as if they are humble and love to worship angels. They always talk about the visions they have seen. Don’t listen to them when they say you are wrong because you don’t do these things. It is so foolish for them to feel such pride, because it is all based on their own human ideas.
Thanks, but I am going to let the op answer his questions about his views as he asserts them in his thread. I know @ReverendRV to be fully capable of speaking for himself and fully capable of articulating his own views, including his views on sources other than himself. I also know Rev to be able to self-amend and self-correct any ideas he may have as the evidence warrants. This thread is the opportunity to do exactly that.
Fullerism is the philosophies of men after the rudiments of this world. Not after Christ not seen
Have you got any evidence from Fuller's own words proving that accusation?

Understand what I am asking. I'll frame this in my practice in an effort to avoid you feeling dismissed or accused. I do not generally post appeals to extrabiblical sources unless the topic of discussion is an extrabiblical source, and I do not generally participate in those discussions when I am unfamiliar with the cited source. I definitely don't offer commentary to that effect. If I don't know the source I look him/her up and do a little reading. I might even buy a book and read it while the thread unfolds so I can have an informed understanding and not solely one in which I take scripture and use it to measure assumptions made about the person or person's views being discussed.

Anyone else can, of course, take a different approach BUT do not expect me to entertain uninformed commentary, especially if and when there is no evidence to support that commentary. If unwilling, unable, or unprepared to do that then it's best to ignore my posts lest the reply be my citing the baselessness and ignorance of the post. Posters don't like when I do that.

I do not care.

If you actually know something about Fullerism then prove it, or at least evidence that knowledge with the man's own words and link the readers to the source so it can be objectively verified by all.
 
I suppose I'll have to learn Fullerism better,
Don't do that because of me. I do not know enough about Fuller's view(s) to critique that view. My lack of knowledge is the reason for asking the questions.
but I still hold to the Doctrines of Grace. So my explanation of why I believe the things I do, the WAY I believe them; may differ from the reasons Fuller believed what he did, and could differ from his explanations of why he came to his conclusions. Though I believe the Doctrines of Grace, I DO explain them differently than Calvinism does...
Okay. Let me then ask my question differently.

Where, specifically, do you think you part ways with any of the five points?

Or.....

Where might you part ways with Calvinist soteriology apart from TULIP?

Would you say that any differing views held are still monergistic? Please elaborate where applicable.
 
Let me make sure I understand this correctly.

When Adam disobeyed God the capital "L" Law of God was written on the human heart. Prior to Adam disobeying God the Law of God was not written on the human heart. Adam's eyes being opened, as stated in Genesis 3:7, and thereby all other human eyes would also be opened thereafter. The writing of the Law of God is caused by disobedience, not obedience. God did not write His Law on the human heart; Adam did that.

Is that what I am supposed to understand Post #26 to say?
Yes, that's what I believe; you are what you eat...

The Tree of Knowledge represents the Old Covenant and the Ten Commandments; and well, the Gospel is a Tree of Life. Adam's eyes were Opened to the Knowledge he gained when he Ate; not when he was Created. This Knowledge became a part of our Human Being...
Don't do that because of me. I do not know enough about Fuller's view(s) to critique that view. My lack of knowledge is the reason for asking the questions.

Okay. Let me then ask my question differently.

Where, specifically, do you think you part ways with any of the five points?

Or.....

Where might you part ways with Calvinist soteriology apart from TULIP?

Would you say that any differing views held are still monergistic?
Please elaborate where applicable.
I don't depart from the Doctrines of Grace, I just explain them differently. I hold to the 5-Points and the 5-Solas. Unconditional Election is Monergistic...
 
So I found the paper finally. However, I'm reading through it right now, and I may quote portions of it. I enjoyed the section on Jonathan Edwards, and now I'm moving to Andrew Fuller's views. Maybe in a day or two I'll have something of substance to share.
For me to officially start calling myself a Fullerite, Fullerism needs to hold to Monergism; at least in Unconditional Election...
 
For me to officially start calling myself a Fullerite, Fullerism needs to hold to Monergism; at least in Unconditional Election...
I'm sorry. I'm encountering some obstacles to getting things done. My original 1-2 days is now pushed into the future somewhere.
 
I'm interested in starting a discussion on Fullerism. Almost since the moment I got Saved, I have wanted there to be a Soteriology between Calvinism and Arminianism; as I've always called myself the most liberal 5-Point Calvinist you will ever meet. On and off over the years I've looked into Fullerism, but I think I'm now ready to call my liberal Calvinism; Fullerism. Because some people say Fullerism is 4.5 or 4.75 Point Calvinism, it's between Arminianism and Calvinism; Fuller was the middle man. But because of Reformed Baptists like Tom Nettles and their affirmations of Fullerism, I can say I'm a 5-Point Fullerite...

Some people call themselves a Calminian. Perhaps Andrew Fuller is the OG Calminian 🤔

Why should I, or shouldn't I, start calling myself a Fullerite?
Personally, I just call myself a Born Again Christian. "Systematics" just get in the way, and accomplish little or nothing (except confusion)..
 
Personally, I just call myself a Born Again Christian. "Systematics" just get in the way, and accomplish little or nothing (except confusion)..
Cool Bob...

What if someone honestly said that if you could answer their one Objection, they would accept Christ; and a Theological answer like the Hypostatic Union could answer it: would you be ready to give a Theological answer to those who asked of you?
 
Cool Bob...

What if someone honestly said that if you could answer their one Objection, they would accept Christ; and a Theological answer like the Hypostatic Union could answer it: would you be ready to give a Theological answer to those who asked of you?
"Hypostatic Union" like "Regeneration" is just another theological buzz word of no real use.

If their "objection" to being Born again is based on some "theological buzz word" issue like that, they're in all likelihood NOT under "Conviction of SIN", they couldn't be Born A gain, and the answer wouldn't be important.

"Conviction of SIN will just "BLOW AWAY" worthless theological beliefs, like chaff. People don't "Accept Christ" because of "theological issues", they accept him because God SHOWS THEM THEIR SIN, and that JUDGEMENT is coming. Salvation isn't a "Mental Assent" issue, and conviction of SIN is the foundation for FAITH.

I recall C.S.Lewis saying that the day he was Born again was the WORST, and the BEST day of his life. The WORST, because his long held precious "theological beliefs" were exposed as the garbage they were, and the BEST because he was now a child of God.

In MY case, the fellow that "led me to the Lord" had never cracked a Bible in his life, and all he knew was what he remembered of what the Bible student that led HIM and his wife to the Lord, had told him the night before. I could have BURIED HIM theologically, but under conviction of SIN, there was nothing to say.
 
Cool Bob...

What if someone honestly said that if you could answer their one Objection, they would accept Christ; and a Theological answer like the Hypostatic Union could answer it: would you be ready to give a Theological answer to those who asked of you?
So the paper is 22 pages long. If there is any way I can send you an email with an attachment rather than reformatting the entire thing to fit the parameters of the forum, it would be much appreciated. An email could be done in about 2-5 minutes. Reformatting the paper for the forum would require at least 1-2 hours.
 
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