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A Question for the Calvinist

Fair question. If Scripture reveals God to us, how are we to know that God apart from Scripture? If Scripture says 'God is love', are we to excuse it as non-anthropomorphic language/revelation?
The fact anthropomorphic language is used only tells us, at best, that we know something about it, and that it is absolutely true, and it should also tell us, in light of the whole of the Word of God, that there is a lot more we don't yet know.

But we know God also from fellowship with him. The reprobate have none of that aspect of his love.
 
@His clay wrote


What would be the reason (if not arbitrary) for God's choice? Certainly, nothing in us would warrant a reason.

Romans 9:18,21 KJV
Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth. [21] Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
But that isn't arbitrary at all. It is particular, directed, purposeful, along the lines of his reason for creating. No eeny meeny miny moe. The Elect, the Redeemed, were chosen in Him from the foundation of the world, not by anything they did, but by him for his purposes, not picked from a pool of possible, but created, each one, for those particular purposes God intended.
 
I didn't come to Christ; He came to me in my sin.
I just ask 'why me, the druggie and occultist?' Why not my dad, the atheist
The only answer that I found to "why me?" came from God himself: For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion." So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy. - Romans 9:15-16 [ESV]

... a divine version of "Just because (God)".

Or as Corrie Ten Boom put it: "God does as He pleases, and He does it right well."
 
@His clay wrote


What would be the reason (if not arbitrary) for God's choice? Certainly, nothing in us would warrant a reason.

Romans 9:18,21 KJV
Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth. [21] Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
Prism asked, "What would be the reason (if not arbitrary) for God's choice?"
In post #305 I answered the question.
In post #307 I answered the question.
In post #315 I answered the question.
In post #335 I answered the question. Post #335 is the very post you are responding to.

So then I will quote my self, again. I'm quoting the very thing you are responding to.
The simplistic response to the arbitrary objection leveled against unconditional election is this. The removal of some reasons for God's choice of some to save, does not therefore mean that all reasons for God's choice have been removed. Thusly, the charge of arbitrary cannot stand, for God can still have a reason, even after removing man's choices, merit, and faith as a ground for His choice. Therefore, if God still has reasons, outside of man, that still have a bearing upon His decision, then by definition His choice is not arbitrary; for to be arbitrary is to have no reason at all.

Arbitrary = choice void of reason
Unconditional election = a reasonable (magnification of His grace) choice to save some void of certain man-centered reasons.

Hence, the charge of "arbitrary" is simply misguided and false. Opening posts 1-4 deal with this issue in greater detail.
Notice, that a removal of man-centered reasons does not mean a removal of all reasons. As I stated in the quote, "the removal of some reasons for God's choice of some to save, does not therefore mean that all reasons for God's choice have been removed." And then in the above quote I list out the man-centered reasons omitted from the choice, and I conclude that reasons do exist outside of man-centered ones. "Thusly, the charge of arbitrary cannot stand, for God can still have a reason, even after removing man's choices, merit, and faith as a ground for His choice." Finally, I spell out from Ephesians 1:6 a possible reason that focuses in upon purpose language (to the praise of His glorious grace). I made the contrast between the arbitrary objection and the unconditional election position by stating (note the underlined portion):

Arbitrary = choice void of reason
Unconditional election = a reasonable (magnification of His grace) choice to save some void of certain man-centered reasons.


As everyone can see, repeatedly, I've answered the question multiple times. This leads me to conclude with two questions. Are you reading my posts? And if yes, then how could you have missed the repeated answers already given to your question?
 
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Not bad for an Arminian.
Yep. I grew up with semi-Arminians, Wesleyans and such; it is remarkable to me that in spite of their self-deterministic mode of thinking, their prayers sounded remarkably Calvinistic.
 
Prism asked, "What would be the reason (if not arbitrary) for God's choice?"
In post #305 I answered the question.
In post #307 I answered the question.
In post #315 I answered the question.
In post #335 I answered the question. Post #335 is the very post you are responding to.

So then I will quote my self, again. I'm quoting the very thing you are responding to.

Notice, that a removal of man-centered reasons does not mean a removal of all reasons. As I stated in the quote, "the removal of some reasons for God's choice of some to save, does not therefore mean that all reasons for God's choice have been removed." And then in the above quote I list out the man-centered reasons omitted from the choice, and I conclude that reasons do exist outside of man-centered ones. "Thusly, the charge of arbitrary cannot stand, for God can still have a reason, even after removing man's choices, merit, and faith as a ground for His choice." Finally, I spell out from Ephesians 1:6 a possible reason that focuses in upon purpose language (to the praise of His glorious grace). I made the contrast between the arbitrary objection and the unconditional election position by stating (note the underlined portion):

Arbitrary = choice void of reason
Unconditional election = a reasonable (magnification of His grace) choice to save some void of certain man-centered reasons.


As everyone can see, repeatedly, I've answered the question multiple times. This leads me to conclude with two questions. Are you reading my posts? And if yes, then how could you have missed the repeated answers already given to your question?
'As everyone can see?' Are you addressing me or are you addressing everyone?
I had gotten a D in college philosophy, so I'm just asking for scriptural backing, not from logic or man's reasoning.
 
'As everyone can see?' Are you addressing me or are you addressing everyone?
I had gotten a D in college philosophy, so I'm just asking for scriptural backing, not from logic or man's reasoning.
"Are you addressing me or are you addressing everyone?" Perhaps you have forgotten that this is a public forum, so my answer is yes.

Your terms of assessment, "not from logic or man's reasoning."

-If we take your terms as the grid by which to evaluate, then we must reject your question: "What would be the reason (if not arbitrary) for God's choice?" Your question itself uses the very categories you reject.
-If we take your terms as the grid by which to evaluate, then we must reject every person who posts a disagreement on the forum, for every post where people utilize logic and reasoning must be disregarded.
-If we take your terms as the grid by which to evaluate, then we must reject the expression "unconditional election," since people have used logic and reasoning to express the issue in that way. The same goes for any attempt to read scripture and every single attempt to use our own words to express scripture's meaning.
-As, when you read the scripture in English, you are reading people's use of reason and logic as they seek to translate from the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek into the English you are reading. A very significant amount of reason and logic is utilized in the translation process.
-In short, we must disregard this entire forum, since even the posting of scripture comes from logic and reasoning.
-We must also disregard every pastor and teacher out there, for they all utilize logic and man's reason as they preach and teach.

Now, if we are talking about "ultimate sourcing" and not just the use of logic and reason, then your assessment is also fallacious, since I posted scripture and referenced scripture.{1} In my multiple responses destroying the arbitrary objection to unconditional election, I repeatedly argued from Scripture utilizing reason and logic. The arbitrary objection is itself a bad use of reason and logic, as I have repeatedly demonstrated. So why have you raised an issue that goes against your own principles? So, rather than utilizing self-contradictory standards and unfounded accusations, take the time to think and read with comprehension.

=================
{1} Ephesians 1:4 & 6. I also referenced the relevant passages in Romans 9, since they eliminate the man-centered reasons I spoke of previously. And the ultimate sourcing of the arbitrary objection comes from a fallacious use of man's reason and bad logic. Paul also reasoned in the synagogues every sabbath from scripture (assumed as the general norm, since various afflictions, difficulties, and travel probably keeps us from seeing this as covering absolutely every single Sabbath).
=================

The simplistic response to the arbitrary objection leveled against unconditional election is this. The removal of some reasons for God's choice of some to save, does not therefore mean that all reasons for God's choice have been removed. Thusly, the charge of arbitrary cannot stand, for God can still have a reason, even after removing man's choices, merit, and faith as a ground for His choice. Therefore, if God still has reasons, outside of man, that still have a bearing upon His decision, then by definition His choice is not arbitrary; for to be arbitrary is to have no reason at all.

Arbitrary = choice void of reason
Unconditional election = a reasonable (magnification of His grace) choice to save some void of certain man-centered reasons.

Hence, the charge of "arbitrary" is simply misguided and false. Opening posts 1-4 deal with this issue in greater detail.
 
@prism
Please take a moment to answer this question. You have stated, "What would be the reason (if not arbitrary) for God's choice?"

In this question, you have utilized the word "arbitrary." Is our knowledge the standard of the term, or is God's knowledge the standard?

I'm asking this because my view is that man is not the standard; God is the standard. Thusly, if we don't know, that does not mean that God cannot have a reason. It just means that human beings are extremely limited in their knowledge. God knows and has a much larger reasoning structure than human beings do. Thusly, if we don't know something, God most certainly does know where we fall short. God may very well have a reason that we do not know, and therefore God's decision is not arbitrary, even if it may appear to be that way to us.

(But don't forget Eph1:6, and what I wrote previously) :)
 
-If we take your terms as the grid by which to evaluate, then we must reject your question: "What would be the reason (if not arbitrary) for God's choice?" Your question itself uses the very categories you reject.
-If we take your terms as the grid by which to evaluate, then we must reject every person who posts a disagreement on the forum, for every post where people utilize logic and reasoning must be disregarded.
-If we take your terms as the grid by which to evaluate, then we must reject the expression "unconditional election," since people have used logic and reasoning to express the issue in that way. The same goes for any attempt to read scripture and every single attempt to use our own words to express scripture's meaning.
I believe I made it clear that Scripture was my terms (see #347). Are you able to back up your assertions with Scripture? Or does Sola Scriptura no longer count?
-As, when you read the scripture in English, you are reading people's use of reason and logic as they seek to translate from the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek into the English you are reading. A very significant amount of reason and logic is utilized in the translation process.
-In short, we must disregard this entire forum, since even the posting of scripture comes from logic and reasoning.
-We must also disregard every pastor and teacher out there, for they all utilize logic and man's reason as they preach and teach.
Believe it or not, I understood those points.
Now, if we are talking about "ultimate sourcing" and not just the use of logic and reason, then your assessment is also fallacious, since I posted scripture and referenced scripture.{1} In my multiple responses destroying the arbitrary objection to unconditional election, I repeatedly argued from Scripture utilizing reason and logic. The arbitrary objection is itself a bad use of reason and logic, as I have repeatedly demonstrated. So why have you raised an issue that goes against your own principles? So, rather than utilizing self-contradictory standards and unfounded accusations, take the time to think and read with comprehension.
Scripture please.
 
In this question, you have utilized the word "arbitrary." Is our knowledge the standard of the term, or is God's knowledge the standard?
Here is what I had said...
@His clay wrote What would be the reason (if not arbitrary) for God's choice? Certainly, nothing in us would warrant a reason. Romans 9:18,21 KJV Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth. [21] Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to...
God's knowledge is the standard; but 'knowledge of what? Himself? His creation? Does His knowledge condescend to His creation (hence arbitrary)?
Or does it remain eternal to His Being?
 
Does His knowledge condescend to His creation (hence arbitrary)?
Or does it remain eternal to His Being?
Concerning God's reason behind his choosing an individual for salvation: is "his knowledge condescending to his creation" your definition of arbitrary? And could you please explain what that statement means as I truly do not understand how it relates to my definition of arbitrary. My definition would be having no reason for his choice. Utterly random and without reason.
 
(and I know there are plenty here)

Why can't a person facing Judgment say, "The reason I am being judged to eternal destruction is because you did not ordain/predestine me to eternal life?
God would respond back in your scenerio with I am granting to you what you desire thy will be done, as you hated me while upon the earth, so being in Heaven with me forever would be a living hell to you
 
God would respond back in your scenerio with I am granting to you what you desire thy will be done, as you hated me while upon the earth, so being in Heaven with me forever would be a living hell to you
But I could just as easily point to the saved Christian next to me and say "He had the same desires as I had before you drew him to Yourself".
 
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I believe I made it clear that Scripture was my terms (see #347). Are you able to back up your assertions with Scripture? Or does Sola Scriptura no longer count?

Believe it or not, I understood those points.

Scripture please.
"I believe I made it clear that Scripture was my terms (see347). Are you able to back up your assertions with Scripture? Or does Sola Scriptura no longer count?"
Double standard. I do not see any scripture by which you are backing up your comments here. Further, I have pointed out the blatant double standard when you raise this issue. Now, you can continue to ignore the issue as you are doing here, or you can actually address the issue.

"Scripture please"
According to your standards, since you are employing the use of logic and man's reason, and I see no scripture, then we must conclude, on your grounds, that you no longer count Sola Scriptura. Or are you not going to back up your assertions with Scripture?

Simply put. Your response here completely ignores the issues I raise. You are employing a double standard, and double standards are what Jesus heavily criticized in Matthew 23. Why would you take an approach that places you firmly in the camp of Jesus' opponents? Do you really want to fight against Jesus?

I have already addressed your post #347 with the post you are failing to address above through your double standard. You may want to try reading with comprehension.
 
We have to see that all of us deserved Hell in the end, so any getting saved would be totally to Grace
It still begs the question, "why some and not others?"
 
Simply put. Your response here completely ignores the issues I raise. You are employing a double standard, and double standards are what Jesus heavily criticized in Matthew 23. Why would you take an approach that places you firmly in the camp of Jesus' opponents? Do you really want to fight against Jesus?
So you've proved I am a sinner, so what else is new? I'm still waiting for the answer to the question of 'why some but not others?', without all the Western theological hoopla.
 
Here is what I had said...

God's knowledge is the standard; but 'knowledge of what? Himself? His creation? Does His knowledge condescend to His creation (hence arbitrary)?
Or does it remain eternal to His Being?
I think that I see the source of the problem. You are understanding the term differently than I have. I have defined the term multiple times. In my four part response I dealt with each nuance of the term.

Above we can see by the words, "knowledge condescend to His creation (hence arbitrary)"
In theological terms, we would call this condescension of His knowledge to creation and act of revelation. We have categories called special and general revelation. These categories are basic common knowledge for anyone who has studied the issue in the slightest manner. No one calls this "arbitrary" except you.

So because you have failed to listen and hear the definition I used. In post #352 @Arial stated a definition of arbitrary. "My definition would be having no reason for his choice. Utterly random and without reason." Hence, this entire, long discussion is simply the result of an difference of view over the meaning of a word. In post #305 I listed the four part response. One of those dealt in detail with the semantics concerning the word "arbitrary," I would suggest reading that as well as become more familiar with the English language. Grab a dictionary and look up the definition of "arbitrary." You might just learn something, and then we can all get back on the same page.

Personally, I feel like my job here is done. I've identified the problem on why we were talking past eachother. I've been very patient with you and reasoned with with you. I've dealt with every single issue you have raise up to Post 351. I've detected a very poor ability to comprehend and listen, and as such I think it best that we part ways for now. My patience grows thin when someone repeatedly ignores the teaching of scripture: "let every many be swift to hear, slow to speak, slow to wrath." God bless you in your endeavors to better understand His revelation. I am thankful that He has condescended to reveal to us His word, and I will be forever thankful that God condescended to reveal to us His son. I am thankful that God's wisdom is abundantly above ours and that the utterly bankrupt arbitrary objection against unconditional election is false.

Seriously, try slowing down and listening as you read posters, and try to do some study so that you can understand the issues better. Thanks for taking some time to dialogue with me. :)
 
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